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Statistics

Benign and locally aggressive bone lesions

Fibrous dysplasia, adamantinoma and non-ossifying fibroma with their radiographic appearances.

57 questions 9 source pages 1 fact-check flags

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57 questions
Q1Describe the X-ray findings in fibrous dysplasia.▸
  • Expansile lesion at the metaphyseal region with cortical thinning
  • Intramedullary with a narrow transition zone
  • Ground-glass matrix, no periosteal reaction
  • Mild varus deformity of the proximal femur (shepherd crook deformity)
  • Ddx: bone cyst/ enchondroma (if matrix less ground glass), infection, brown tumour, haematological, metastasis in older patients
Q2What is the pathophysiology of fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Localised dysfunction of osteoblast differentiation (via increased cAMP signalling) and maturation
  • Failure of lamellar bone formation (failure of lamella bone formation); bone is replaced by fibrous tissue
  • Mutation of Ch 20q23 (GNAS), not inherited
Q3What syndromes are associated with fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • McCune-Albright syndrome (McCune Albright syndrome): polyostotic FD, cafe au lait spots (coast of Maine), hyperfunctioning endocrine disease (precocious puberty, hyperT4, acromegaly)
  • Scoliosis; GNAS mutation
  • Mazabraud syndrome: polyostotic FD + soft tissue intramuscular myxoma
Q4What is the histology and risk of malignant transformation in fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Histology: alphabet soup appearance - trabeculae of osteoid within fibrous stroma
  • Malignant transformation 1% (osteosarcoma/fibrosarcoma); 5-10% in polyostotic disease (per notes)
  • Nocturnal pain suggests malignant transformation
Q5What are the indications and principles of surgery in fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Indications: pathological fracture, enlarging lesion, recurrent fracture/deformity, high stress area (femoral neck)
  • Polyostotic: mainly deformity correction and fracture prevention
  • Monostotic: curettage; monostotic -> aim to remove tumor (curative)
  • Curettage, allograft (autograft transforms into fibrous tissue), stable titanium IM nail +/- osteotomy
Q6What medical treatment is used in fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Bisphosphonate for symptomatic polyostotic patients: pain relief, decrease fracture, partial resolution of lesion
  • Denosumab - ongoing study (J Bone Miner Res 2021)
Q7Which patients and bones are affected by fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Can involve any bone
  • More common in females
Q8What deformities can fibrous dysplasia cause?▸
  • Mono-ostotic vs polyostotic disease
  • Coxa vara with Trendelenburg gait
  • Blindness with skull involvement
Q9What natural history of fibrous dysplasia must patients be counselled about?▸
  • Progression of the existing lesion + appearance of new lesions
  • Old lesions will not mature - problem of remodelling: decreased cellularity, increased collagen deposition, persistent woven bone, no compressive/tensile trabeculae -> progressive deformity
  • Progressive deformity until maturity, but may progress again with maturity
Q10What investigations are performed in fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Inflammatory markers, ALP, LDH - increase suggests malignant transformation
  • Skeletal survey to rule out polyostotic disease (if polyostotic, screen for syndromes)
  • If mono-ostotic: consider biopsy for diagnosis (monoostotic: consider biopsy for Dx)
Q11What are the aims of treatment in fibrous dysplasia?▸
  • Decrease pain, prevent fracture +/- correct deformity
Q12What intraoperative difficulties are anticipated in fibrous dysplasia surgery?▸
  • Lesions can be very vascular - prepare blood
  • Choose the correct implant with the right NSA
Q13Describe the X-ray findings in eosinophilic granuloma.▸
  • Well-defined intramedullary lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right femur
  • Laminated periosteal reaction with thinning of the cortex
  • Highly destructive with a well-defined border
  • Ddx: Ewing sarcoma, infection, haematological
Q14What is Hand-Schuller-Christian disease?▸
  • Triad: multiple lytic lesions, diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos
  • Chronic disseminated Langerhans histiocytosis with visceral involvement, >3 years old
Q15What is the histology of eosinophilic granuloma?▸
  • Langerhans cells (antigen-presenting): pale staining, coffee bean nuclei, eosinophilic, Birbeck granules
  • Giant cells present
  • No atypia; normal nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
Q16What investigations are needed in eosinophilic granuloma?▸
  • Bloods; local imaging with MRI
  • Systemic staging: CT thorax + bone scan
  • Tissue diagnosis (biopsy)
Q17How is spinal deformity in eosinophilic granuloma managed?▸
  • Bracing first line: corrects 90% of deformity and regains 50% of vertebral height
  • Failed (10%) -> low-dose radiotherapy
  • Curettage + BG +/- steroid if nonoperative treatment fails or for a solitary lesion close to an articular surface
  • HSC: vinblastine + steroid
Q18What are the clinical features of eosinophilic granuloma?▸
  • Pain + limp
  • Progressive kyphotic posture
Q19What is the natural history of eosinophilic granuloma?▸
  • Self-limiting benign histiocytic lesion
  • Monostotic bone disease
  • Highly destructive with a well-defined border
  • Biopsy alone may be sufficient treatment
Q20What are the sites of involvement in eosinophilic granuloma?▸
  • Skull, ribs, clavicle, scapula, mandible
  • Spine especially thoracic (vertebral plana)
  • Diaphyseal regions of long bones and the pelvis
Q21What is the spectrum of histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell histiocytosis)?▸
  • A reticuloendothelial system pathology
  • Eosinophilic granuloma (monostotic)
  • Hand-Schuller-Christian disease: chronic disseminated with visceral involvement, >3 years old
  • Letterer-Siwe disease: <3 years old, fatal
Q22What is vertebra plana and what is its differential?▸
  • Single level vertebral collapse
  • Ddx: post-TB, post-fracture, haematogenous
  • Compare with platyspondyly (diffuse) in SED/osteomalacia
Q23What is the great mimicker differential of eosinophilic granuloma?▸
  • Osteomyelitis, leukaemia, lymphoma
  • Fibrous dysplasia, Ewing sarcoma
Q24Describe the X-ray findings of osteoid osteoma.▸
  • Osteolytic lesion over the intertrochanteric region with surrounding sclerosis
  • +/- homogenous cortical thickening
  • +/- radiolucent nidus
  • +/- solid periosteal reaction
  • Ddx: Brodie's abscess, stress/healing fracture, fibrous cortical defect, Ewing sarcoma
Q25What is the classic clinical presentation of osteoid osteoma?▸
  • Night pain, worse after alcohol, relieved by NSAIDs
  • Flexion contracture of the knee
  • Painful scoliosis
Q26What is the double-density sign on bone scan?▸
  • A small focus of intense radioactivity in the nidus
  • Superimposed on a larger area of lower, but still increased, radioactivity
Q27How is nidus size used to distinguish osteoid osteoma from osteoblastoma?▸
  • CT delineates the nidus: <1.5cm = osteoid osteoma
  • >1.5cm = osteoblastoma (typically 3-4cm)
Q28What are the management options for osteoid osteoma?▸
  • Conservative NSAIDs: 50% treated with NSAID alone; sole treatment in spinal involvement without scoliosis; self-resolves in 3 years
  • CT-guided radiofrequency ablation: failed conservative or juxta-articular lesions with contracture; controversial in spine as close to neural elements, need 1cm safe zone in spine; 85% success
  • RFA complications: skin burn, stress riser at long bone; allows concomitant biopsy
  • Surgery (marginal excision): failed conservative when RFA not possible, painful scoliosis; CT navigation adjunct
Q29What are the differences between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?▸
  • Nidus size: <1.5cm (osteoid osteoma) vs >1.5cm/typically 3-4cm (osteoblastoma)
  • Location: proximal femur > tibia > spine vs posterior elements of the spine > proximal femur
  • Course: self-limiting vs progressive; NSAID relief yes vs no
  • Surgery: +/- vs yes; osteoblastoma has more giant cells histologically
Q30What is the pathophysiology of pain in osteoid osteoma?▸
  • Nidus of central woven bone with osteoblastic rimming surrounded by a reactive zone
  • Pain due to prostaglandin E2 concentration and COX1/2 expression
  • Increased unmyelinated nerve endings within
  • Spontaneous bleeding within
Q31What is the histology of osteoid osteoma?▸
  • Distinct border between the osteoid nidus and reactive bone
  • Nidus of immature osteoid + osteoblastic rim
  • Increased mitotic figures with normal NC ratio
  • Osteoblastoma = more giant cells
Q32What investigations are performed for a suspected osteoid osteoma?▸
  • Blood test to rule out infection
  • X-ray: reactive bone with a radiolucent nidus
  • CT to delineate the size of the nidus
  • Bone scan: double-density sign
Q33Describe the CT findings in this patient.▸
  • Axial cut showing a lytic lesion over the facet
  • Expansile, with no cortical breakage and no periosteal reaction
  • No definite narrowing of the spinal canal
  • Ddx: osteoblastoma, ABC, GCT, exostosis, chondrosarcoma
Q34What is the differential diagnosis of an anterior spinal tumour?▸
  • Metastasis, haemangioma, multiple myeloma
  • Eosinophilic granuloma, chordoma
  • Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma
Q35What is the assessment of osteoblastoma?▸
  • Hx/PE: dull pain not relieved by NSAIDs, neurological symptoms
  • Tumour markers including SPE
  • X-ray: expansile lytic lesion with reactive bone; CT to delineate nidus
  • Bone scan hot; MRI if neurological complication
Q36What is the histology and management of osteoblastoma?▸
  • Similar to osteoid osteoma but with more giant cells
  • Nidus of immature osteoid surrounded by osteoblasts, increased mitotic figures but no atypia
  • Marginal excision; recurrence 10-20%
Q37Describe the deformities shown in the clinical photo.▸
  • Genu valgum; right knee flexed and internally rotated posture
  • No gross leg length discrepancy
  • Forearm radial bowing + ulnar deviation of the hand
  • Prominent radial styloid; ulnar shortened; +/- radial head subluxation
Q38What negative findings are documented?▸
  • No absent ray
  • No gross joint swelling
  • No skin changes or stigmata
Q39What upper limb features are present?▸
  • Radial bowing with ulnar deviation of the hand
  • Prominent radial styloid
  • Ulnar shortening
  • +/- radial head subluxation
Q40Describe the X-ray findings in adamantinoma.▸
  • Skeletally mature patient
  • Multiple lucent lesions separated by septa of bone with a soap bubble appearance
  • Cortical lesion at the anterior cortex of the proximal tibia with cortical thickening
  • Wide transition zone, no increase in anterior bowing, no obvious periosteal reaction
Q41What is adamantinoma?▸
  • Low grade malignancy of unknown origin
  • Usually 20-40 years old, located nearly always at the anterior tibia
  • May metastasize to lung (25%)
Q42What are the differentials for adamantinoma?▸
  • Osteofibrous dysplasia, ossifying fibroma, osteoid osteoma
  • Brodie's abscess, fracture callus
  • Haematological malignancy
Q43What is the assessment and biopsy appearance in adamantinoma?▸
  • Hx: insidious pain; PE: anterior bowing deformity, palpable mass
  • CXR: lung mets 25%; MRI: decrease in T1 signal
  • Biopsy: fibrous and epithelial +/- glandular tissue in a gland-like pattern (glandular tissue in gland like pattern)
Q44What is the management of adamantinoma?▸
  • Wide margin excision + reconstruction
  • RT/chemotherapy not used due to slow growth
Q45Describe the X-ray findings in chondroblastoma.▸
  • Lytic lesion in the epiphysis of a skeletally immature patient
  • no obvious matrix seen; narrow transition zone with sclerotic border
  • Not expansile; no periosteal reaction; the physis has been breached
Q46What are the differentials for an epiphyseal lytic lesion?▸
  • Telangiectatic osteosarcoma, infection, metabolic disease
  • GCT and clear cell chondrosarcoma in older patients
  • Can have a secondary ABC
Q47What is the natural history of chondroblastoma?▸
  • Majority <25 years, common around 12
  • Usually epiphyseal, can cross the physis; most common around the knee, also proximal humerus/femur
  • <1% benign metastasis to lung; CXR shows lung mets in 2% (per notes)
Q48What is the biopsy appearance and treatment of chondroblastoma?▸
  • Biopsy: cobblestone, chickenwire appearance, scattered multinucleated giant cells, chondroid matrix
  • Intralesional curettage +/- adjuvant therapy (phenol or cryotherapy); 10-15% recurrence
  • Excision in patients with lung metastasis
Q49What assessment is performed for chondroblastoma?▸
  • Hx/PE: pain and tenderness
  • CXR for lung mets (2%)
  • Blood test; MRI
  • Biopsy
Q50What is a non-ossifying fibroma and who does it affect?▸
  • Most common benign bone tumour in childhood (5-15 years)
  • Metaphysis/meta-diaphyseal junction
  • Pathogenesis: abnormal osteoclastic resorption at the subperiosteal level during metaphyseal remodelling
Q51Describe the X-ray findings in non-ossifying fibroma.▸
  • Meta-diaphyseal junction
  • Eccentric
  • Bubbly lytic lesion surrounded by a sclerotic rim
Q52What conditions are associated with non-ossifying fibroma?▸
  • ABC, neurofibromatosis
  • Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome: multiple NOF, cafe au lait pigmentation, mental retardation, heart/eyes/gonads involvement
Q53What is the histology and treatment of non-ossifying fibroma?▸
  • Fibroblastic spindle cells in a storiform pattern (whorls of elongated spindle cells)
  • Treatment: always conservative
  • Ddx: UBC, ABC, fibrous dysplasia, infection
Q54What are the differentials and MRI findings in CMF?▸
  • Ddx: NOF, ABC, chondroblastoma with breaching of the physis
  • MRI: T1 hypointense, T2 hyperintense
Q55What is the biopsy appearance of chondromyxoid fibroma?▸
  • Hypercellular fibrous matrix
  • Hypocellular chondroid matrix
  • Stellate spindle cells in a myxoid matrix
Q56What is the management and recurrence rate of CMF?▸
  • Intra-lesional curettage + bone graft/cement
  • Recurrence up to 30%
Q57Describe the X-ray findings in chondromyxoid fibroma.▸
  • Skeletally immature patient
  • Lytic lesion at the proximal tibial metaphysis
  • Eccentrically located with cortical expansion and destruction
  • Narrow zone of transition
  • No periosteal reaction or soft tissue swelling
  • Dx: CMF

Fact check

Malignant transformation in fibrous dysplasia is 1%, rising to 5-10% in polyostotic disease — Overstated for polyostotic disease — Published series report ~0.4-1% overall and up to ~4% in McCune-Albright/familial cases; 5-10% is higher than most sources — (medium confidence) — source