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Local revision copy · not clinical advice

Dysplasia Syndromes

Topic 19 · slides 547–568 · 22 slides · 125 questions
22 slides
▸ Slide 547 · Dysplasia/ SyndromesDysplasia Syndromes · 2 questions expand
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slide 547
Question list
Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What does this slide introduce in the dysplasia/syndromes topic?
  2. List the common skeletal dysplasias and syndromes relevant to orthopaedics.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What does this slide introduce in the dysplasia/syndromes topic?
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
Q2.List the common skeletal dysplasias and syndromes relevant to orthopaedics.
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
▸ Slide 548 · Vit D3 actionDysplasia Syndromes · 3 questions expand
slide 548
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the actions of vitamin D3 on the GI tract?
  2. What are the actions of vitamin D3 on bone?
  3. What is the effect of vitamin D3 on PTH and what upregulates vitamin D3?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the actions of vitamin D3 on the GI tract?
  • Absorbs Ca
  • Absorbs PO4
Q2.What are the actions of vitamin D3 on bone?
  • Activates osteoblast matrix production
  • Increased osteoclast action through RANK-RANKL
Q3.What is the effect of vitamin D3 on PTH and what upregulates vitamin D3?
  • Inhibit PTH
  • Increased PTH (hydroxylation in the kidney)
  • Low calcium level, low PO4 level
  • Decreased vitamin D3 itself (auto-regulation)
▸ Slide 549 · PTH actionDysplasia Syndromes · 3 questions expand
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slide 549
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the effect of PTH on calcium reabsorption?
  2. What is the effect of PTH on phosphate reabsorption?
  3. What is the net effect of PTH on serum calcium and phosphate?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the effect of PTH on calcium reabsorption?
  • Increases Ca reabsorption at the bone
  • Increases Ca reabsorption at the kidney
Q2.What is the effect of PTH on phosphate reabsorption?
  • Increases PO4 reabsorption at the bone
  • Decreases PO4 reabsorption at the kidney
Q3.What is the net effect of PTH on serum calcium and phosphate?
  • Increase serum Ca
  • Decrease serum PO4
▸ Slide 550 · Xray LL of skeletally immature patientDysplasia Syndromes · 11 questions expand
slide 550
Question list
Q1-Q1111 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings in this skeletally immature patient.
  2. What is rickets / osteomalacia?
  3. In a child with widened physes and bowed legs, what history and examination findings should be sought?
  4. What are the clinical features of rickets?
  5. What are the biochemical features of rickets?
  6. Describe the X-ray and histological findings of rickets.
  7. What are the causes of rickets by category?
  8. What is the defect in vitamin D dependent rickets type I and type II?
  9. Describe X-linked dominant familial hypophosphatemic rickets.
  10. What is hypophosphatasia?
  11. How is rickets treated?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in this skeletally immature patient.
  • Increased physeal width in general, cupping of the metaphyseal area
  • Bowing of bilateral tibia
  • No coxa vara
  • Systemic disease affecting the physis; Ddx MED, SED
Q2.What is rickets / osteomalacia?
  • Defect in mineralization of osteoid matrix and chondroid (in the zone of calcification)
  • Caused by inadequate calcium and phosphate
  • Impaired calcification of the cartilage matrix of growing long bones -> increased physeal width, cortical thinning and bowing
Q3.In a child with widened physes and bowed legs, what history and examination findings should be sought?
  • History: birth and family history, diet
  • PE: hyperlaxity, generalised weakness
Q4.What are the clinical features of rickets?
  • Short stature (proportionate)
  • Frontal bossing + caput quadratum
  • Pigeon chest
  • Rachitic rosary
  • Harrison's sulcus
  • Cat back kyphosis
  • LL alignment abnormalities
Q5.What are the biochemical features of rickets?
  • Decreased Ca and PO4
  • Increased ALP and PTH (except in familial hypophosphatemic rickets and hypophosphatasia)
  • Vitamin D level depends on the cause
Q6.Describe the X-ray and histological findings of rickets.
  • Long bone bowing
  • looser’s zone/ pseudofracture (Looser's zone / pseudofracture): transverse radiolucency from unmineralized osteoid seam; weight-bearing bones on the compression side, non-weight-bearing at the nutrient foramen
  • Metaphyseal flaring in paintbrush pattern and cupping; widened physis at the zone of hypertrophy
  • +/- osteopenia; cod-fish vertebrae
  • Histology: unmineralized osteoid seam
Q7.What are the causes of rickets by category?
  • Intake: intake problem, lack of sunlight exposure, GI problem
  • Processing: vitamin D dependent rickets
  • Recycling: vitamin D independent rickets (X-linked dominant familial hypophosphatemic rickets), hypophosphatasia
Q8.What is the defect in vitamin D dependent rickets type I and type II?
  • Type I: defective 1-alpha hydroxylase
  • Type II: end organ insensitivity to 1,25-(OH)2 vitamin D
Q9.Describe X-linked dominant familial hypophosphatemic rickets.
  • PHEX encodes an endopeptidase cleaving FGF23; cannot chelate FGFR23
  • Cannot reabsorb PO4 in the proximal tubules, cannot mineralize
  • More diaphyseal bowing rather than metaphyseal bowing
  • New drug: Burosumab
Q10.What is hypophosphatasia?
  • Mutation in the tissue nonspecific isoenzyme of ALP (tissue non-specific isoenzyme of ALP)
  • Reduced ALP, decreased synthesis of phosphate, decreased mineralization
  • Increase in urine phosphoethanol-amine (urine phosphoethanolamine)
Q11.How is rickets treated?
  • Treat the underlying cause
  • Dietary input -> vitamin D3 5000 IU/day
  • Vitamin D dependent type 1 -> calcitriol 1-2 micrograms/day; type 2 -> high dose vitamin D
  • Hypophosphataemic syndrome -> calcitriol +/- phosphate 1g
  • Mild deformity -> watchful observation for remodelling; severe deformity affecting ADL -> deformity correction
▸ Slide 551 · Histology of osteomalacia/ rickets: widened osteoid seams (large amount of unminDysplasia Syndromes · 3 questions expand
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slide 551
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the histology of osteomalacia / rickets?
  2. What is the histology of osteoporosis?
  3. How does tetracycline labelling differ between osteomalacia and osteoporosis?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the histology of osteomalacia / rickets?
  • Widened osteoid seams (large amount of unmineralized osteoid)
  • Abnormal tetracycline labelling (tetracycline binds the mineralized surface of bone)
Q2.What is the histology of osteoporosis?
  • Thinned trabeculae
  • Decreased osteon size
  • Enlarged Haversian and marrow spaces
  • Normal tetracycline labelling
Q3.How does tetracycline labelling differ between osteomalacia and osteoporosis?
  • Tetracycline binds to the mineralized surface of bone
  • Abnormal in osteomalacia/rickets
  • Normal in osteoporosis
▸ Slide 552 · Clinical photo showing patient of short stature which is disproportional (as patDysplasia Syndromes · 9 questions expand
slide 552
Question list
Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the clinical findings in this patient with disproportionate short stature.
  2. What dysmorphic, limb and trunk features are seen in achondroplasia?
  3. What further examination is needed in suspected achondroplasia?
  4. What is the differential diagnosis of disproportionate short-limb dwarfism?
  5. What is the Rubin classification of achondroplasia and how common is it?
  6. What is the genetics of achondroplasia?
  7. What is the pathophysiology of achondroplasia?
  8. What orthopaedic problems occur in achondroplasia?
  9. Why is spinal surgery difficult in achondroplasia?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the clinical findings in this patient with disproportionate short stature.
  • Hand can only reach the pelvis instead of the thigh; Head also appears large
  • Rhizomelic short stature: humerus shorter than forearm, thigh similar length to leg (usually 0.8)
Q2.What dysmorphic, limb and trunk features are seen in achondroplasia?
  • Dysmorphism: frontal bossing, hypoplastic midface, otitis media, normal IQ
  • Limb: elbow flexion contracture (posterior radial head dislocation), trident hand, genu varum
  • Trunk: TL kyphosis, LS hyperlordosis; spinal stenosis (short pedicles), cervical myelopathy (foramen magnum stenosis)
  • Protruberant abdomen. Flat chest
Q3.What further examination is needed in suspected achondroplasia?
  • Standing and seating height (standing <3rd percentile, sitting normal)
  • Measure limb length (rhizomelic shortening)
  • Ligamentous laxity
  • Check elbow ROM and posterior radial head dislocation
Q4.What is the differential diagnosis of disproportionate short-limb dwarfism?
  • Hypochondroplasia
  • Pseudochondroplasia
  • Leri Wiel Dyschondroosteosis (Leri-Weill dyschondrosteosis)
  • MED
Q5.What is the Rubin classification of achondroplasia and how common is it?
  • Rubin classification: physeal hypoplasia
  • Most common cause of disproportionate dwarfism
Q6.What is the genetics of achondroplasia?
  • AD; sporadic mutation >80% (risk with advanced paternal age)
  • Mutation of FGFR3 on chromosome 4
  • glycine base being substituted by an arginine base -> prolonged receptor activation after ligand binding -> excessive growth limitation
Q7.What is the pathophysiology of achondroplasia?
  • Abnormal chondroid production by chondroblasts in the proliferative zone during enchondral bone formation at the physis
  • Intramembranous ossification not affected
  • Quantitative cartilage defect
  • Diagnosed by prenatal USG
Q8.What orthopaedic problems occur in achondroplasia?
  • Foramen magnum stenosis
  • Spinal stenosis
  • Radial head subluxation with elbow flexion contracture
  • Genu varum
Q9.Why is spinal surgery difficult in achondroplasia?
  • Positioning
  • Exposure – increase lumbar lordosis
  • Anatomy - small pedicles
▸ Slide 553 · HandDysplasia Syndromes · 4 questions expand
slide 553
Question list
Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the hand X-ray findings in this skeletal dysplasia.
  2. What are the spinal findings on the scoliosis series?
  3. What are the pelvic findings?
  4. What are the lower limb findings?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the hand X-ray findings in this skeletal dysplasia.
  • Increased gap between long and ring finger
  • Irregular epiphysis
  • Short metacarpals with suspected flaring of the metaphysis; metacarpal also appear short with suspected flaring of metaphysis
Q2.What are the spinal findings on the scoliosis series?
  • VP shunt in situ
  • Interpedicular distance decreased from cranial to caudal
  • Scalloping of vertebrae
  • Very flat horizontal sacrum
  • Thoracolumbar kyphosis
Q3.What are the pelvic findings?
  • Horizontal acetabular roof
  • Small squared iliac wings
  • Champagne glass pelvic inner contour
  • Short SI notches
Q4.What are the lower limb findings?
  • Disproportionate long bone development
  • Metaphyseal flaring
  • V-shaped physis
  • Genu varum
  • Lateral fibular bowing
▸ Slide 554 · Pseudo --> achondro --> hypoDysplasia Syndromes · 4 questions expand
slide 554
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What do pseudochondroplasia, achondroplasia and hypochondroplasia have in common, and how is achondroplasia distinguished?
  2. What are the features of pseudochondroplasia?
  3. How does pseudochondroplasia differ from SED?
  4. What are the features of hypochondroplasia?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What do pseudochondroplasia, achondroplasia and hypochondroplasia have in common, and how is achondroplasia distinguished?
  • All are AD with short stature
  • Achondroplasia is the only one with an abnormal face and trident hand
Q2.What are the features of pseudochondroplasia?
  • AD, COMP defect on chr19 (also in MED); onset usually 2nd decade
  • Rhizomelic short limbs, Hip dysplasis (hip dysplasia)
  • Windswept LL and knee recurvatum
  • Fingers short and broad
  • Spine: kyphoscoliosis, platyspondyly, odontoid hypoplasia; normal IQ
Q3.How does pseudochondroplasia differ from SED?
  • Mimics SED because of epiphyseal changes
  • Difference: later onset, milder spine deformity and normal face in pseudochondroplasia
Q4.What are the features of hypochondroplasia?
  • AD, rare form of the same FGFR3 gene
  • Milder dwarfism
  • Face normal; spine changes rare
  • MR; rare need for surgery
▸ Slide 555 · NeurofibromatosisDysplasia Syndromes · 7 questions 1 check expand
slide 555
Question list
Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the three types of neurofibromatosis?
  2. What are the NIH consensus diagnostic criteria for NF1?
  3. What are the orthopaedic manifestations of NF1?
  4. Describe the features of dystrophic scoliosis in NF1.
  5. How is NF1 scoliosis managed?
  6. What are the genetics, prognosis and surgical difficulties in NF1?
  7. What are the features of malignant transformation in NF1?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the three types of neurofibromatosis?
  • NF1 (NIH consensus)
  • NF2 with bilateral vestibular schwannomas
  • Segmental NF (single body segment)
Q2.What are the NIH consensus diagnostic criteria for NF1?
  • 2 of 7 required
  • Family history in a 1st degree relative
  • Skin: cafe au lait spots >6 (15mm in adults, 5mm in children); axillary and groin freckling (Crowe sign)
  • Nerve: neurofibroma x2 or plexiform neurofibroma
  • Bone: distinctive osseous lesion (sphenoid dysplasia, long bone cortex thinning +/- pseudoarthrosis)
  • Eye: Lisch nodules x2 (iris hamartoma), optic glioma; updated 2021 adds gene analysis and more specific bone/eye criteria
Q3.What are the orthopaedic manifestations of NF1?
  • Scoliosis (dystrophic / idiopathic-like form)
  • Hemihypertrophy
  • Atlantoaxial instability
  • Plexiform neurofibroma is pathognomonic for NF1, in 4%, can progress to neurofibrosarcoma
Q4.Describe the features of dystrophic scoliosis in NF1.
  • Thoracic kyphoscoliosis with a short segmented, sharp curve and distorted ribs and vertebrae
  • AP: acute short segment curve, atypical level, penciling of ribs (>=3 poor prognosis because of rapid progression), TP spindling, hypoplastic pedicles
  • Lateral: posterior scalloping and wedging of VB, foramina ectasia
  • Transverse: widened canal (increased interpedicular distance)
  • MRI: dumbell lesion (dumbbell lesion), dural ectasia (3mm thoracic, 4mm lumbar), meningocele
Q5.How is NF1 scoliosis managed?
  • Brace is no use
  • Early OT if Cobb >20
  • Decompression
  • ASF & PSF with instrumentation
Q6.What are the genetics, prognosis and surgical difficulties in NF1?
  • AD (50%) / sporadic (50%), 100% penetrance; NF1 gene on chromosome 17q21; abnormal neurofibromin, Affecting RAS which affect osteoclast
  • Prognosis: normal life expectancy; high chance of malignancy and hypertension
  • Surgery difficulties: poor bone stock, significant kyphosis, small pedicles, incidental durotomy, Bleeding due to extradural venous plexus, rib dislocation during reduction causing nerve injury, may need A+P (nonunion: PSF alone up to 40%, A+P 10%)
Q7.What are the features of malignant transformation in NF1?
  • Elephantiasis (large mass with villous skin)
  • Plexiform NF lifetime risk 10% ('bag of worms', filariasis)
  • Clinical: age 36-50yo, sudden pain and increase in size
  • Biopsy to rule out neurofibrosarcoma
Fact check

NF1 gene is on chromosome 17q21 — incorrect locus — The NF1 gene maps to chromosome 17q11.2 (17q21 is the BRCA1 region) — source

▸ Slide 556 · EnchondromatosisDysplasia Syndromes · 7 questions 1 check expand
slide 556
Question list
Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is Ollier's disease and how does it present?
  2. What is Maffucci syndrome and what are its XR features?
  3. What are the rates of malignant transformation in enchondromatosis?
  4. Which four planes of deformity are considered in treatment?
  5. What are the treatment options for deformity in enchondromatosis?
  6. How does enchondroma differ from osteochondroma?
  7. What are the XR features of Ollier's disease?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is Ollier's disease and how does it present?
  • Sporadic defect of enchondral ossification
  • Unilateral involvement --> LLD
  • Angular deformity
  • DDx: polyostotic fibrous dysplasia, OI
Q2.What is Maffucci syndrome and what are its XR features?
  • Maffucci = Ollier's + hemangioma
  • Expanded bone, angular deformity, cutaneous haemangiomata
  • XR: Ollier changes + small rounded calcified phleboliths
Q3.What are the rates of malignant transformation in enchondromatosis?
  • Solitary enchondroma <1%
  • Ollier's 25-30%
  • Maffucci 100%
Q4.Which four planes of deformity are considered in treatment?
  • Coronal: valgus/varus
  • Sagittal: flexion/extension
  • Transverse: torsional
  • Longitudinal: LLD
  • Aim: well-aligned limbs in all planes
Q5.What are the treatment options for deformity in enchondromatosis?
  • Hemiepiphysiodesis or guided growth
  • Osteotomy for acute or gradual correction
  • Combination of techniques
Q6.How does enchondroma differ from osteochondroma?
  • Enchondroma: incomplete enchondral ossification, escape of chondroblast to metaphysis (cartilage in IM canal)
  • Enchondroma: Rubin physis hyperplasia
  • Osteochondroma: benign chondrogenic lesion from the perichondral ring
  • Osteochondroma: metaphysis hyperplasia
Q7.What are the XR features of Ollier's disease?
  • Cartilage-containing lesion + irregular translucent area at metaphysis
  • Expanded bone
  • Polyostotic involvement
Fact check

Malignant transformation occurs in 100% of Maffucci syndrome patients — Overstated - published rates vary widely; not all patients transform — Reported rates range from about 15-40% up to 52-57%; the JBJS 1987 life-table analysis says degeneration is almost a certainty, not 100% — medium confidence — source

▸ Slide 557 · XR of both knees showing a skeletally mature patient with multiple bony protrusiDysplasia Syndromes · 9 questions expand
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slide 557
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Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the XR findings of multiple hereditary exostosis at the knee.
  2. How do you differentiate MHE from Trevor disease?
  3. What is the risk of malignant transformation in MHE?
  4. Which clinical and radiological features suggest malignant transformation?
  5. What are the indications for surgery in MHE?
  6. What is the genetics and pathogenesis of MHE?
  7. What investigations are required in MHE?
  8. What complications must be ruled out in MHE?
  9. What is the growth pattern and natural history of MHE lesions?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the XR findings of multiple hereditary exostosis at the knee.
  • Multiple bony protrusions of the metaphyseal region of distal femur/proximal tibia with metaphyseal tubulation
  • Pedunculated, well defined, narrow zone of transition, pointing away from the physis
  • Trabeculae within lesion continuous with the rest of the bone
  • No cortical destruction, no soft tissue calcification
Q2.How do you differentiate MHE from Trevor disease?
  • Clinically: Trevor is younger
  • Radiologically: Trevor arise from epiphysis
  • Histologically: Trevor cartilage cap has bands of cartilage separating cancellous bone
  • Genetics: normal EXT levels in Trevor
Q3.What is the risk of malignant transformation in MHE?
  • 5-10% lifetime risk of malignant transformation
  • Versus normal lifetime risk of any malignancy of 1 in 3
  • 1% lifetime risk per lesion, chondrosarcoma at around the 5th decade
  • Cartilage cap >2cm suspicious (normal 2-3mm)
Q4.Which clinical and radiological features suggest malignant transformation?
  • Increase in size after puberty
  • Acute onset of pain in adults
  • Cortical destruction, soft tissue mineralization >2cm
  • MRI cartilage cap >2cm, sessile, central lesions more malignant
Q5.What are the indications for surgery in MHE?
  • Pain from bursitis
  • Deformity (forearm bowing, genu varum and valgum)
  • Malignant transformation into chondrosarcoma
  • Excise lesion including cartilaginous cap to reduce recurrence; corrective osteotomy +/- lengthening
Q6.What is the genetics and pathogenesis of MHE?
  • AD; EXT1 (Chr 8), EXT2 (Chr 11), EXT3 (Chr 19); EXT1 worst
  • 10% spontaneous mutation
  • Defect in the groove of Ranvier with aberrant cartilage from the perichondral ring
  • Mutations affect prehypertrophic chondrocytes; Rubin: metaphyseal hyperplasia
Q7.What investigations are required in MHE?
  • Further XR of the scapula and pelvis (regions that cannot be palpated clinically)
  • Scannogram for lower limb alignment
  • Check the forearms clinically for bony exostosis and associated radial head dislocation
Q8.What complications must be ruled out in MHE?
  • Local pressure symptoms (nerve, bursitis, pseudoaneurysm)
  • Deformity/growth disturbance
  • Malignancy
Q9.What is the growth pattern and natural history of MHE lesions?
  • Sessile or pedunculated growth from the physeal plate away from the joint
  • Lesions are benign and stop growing at maturity
▸ Slide 558 · Xray of skeletally immature patient of forearmDysplasia Syndromes · 9 questions expand
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Question list
Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the XR findings in this skeletally immature forearm.
  2. What are the surgical indications from the deformity point of view?
  3. What are the surgical indications from the MHE point of view?
  4. What are the options for radius reconstruction?
  5. What does the 2018 systematic review conclude about ulnar lengthening?
  6. What counselling points are given to the family?
  7. What is the differential diagnosis of the forearm deformity?
  8. How do you confirm the diagnosis and assess the patient?
  9. What are the details of surgical treatment?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the XR findings in this skeletally immature forearm.
  • Shortening of the ulna with ulnar negative variance and apex radial bowing
  • Abnormal bony enlargement of the ulnar head with exostosis
  • Dislocated radial head
  • Ulnar shift of the carpus
Q2.What are the surgical indications from the deformity point of view?
  • Ulnar shortening >1.5cm
  • Radial articular angle >30 degrees
  • Carpal translocation >60%
  • Painful subluxation of the radial head
  • Pronation <60 degrees
Q3.What are the surgical indications from the MHE point of view?
  • Enlarging mass after puberty
  • Nerve or skin impingement, pain
  • Radiologically: cortical erosion
  • Cartilaginous cap >2cm, soft tissue mineralisation >2cm
Q4.What are the options for radius reconstruction?
  • Proximal radius: unstable - one bone forearm; stable - radial head excision
  • Distal: osteotomy/ hemiepiphysiodesis
Q5.What does the 2018 systematic review conclude about ulnar lengthening?
  • Restores radiologic anatomy, improves appearance and to a lesser extent objective clinical parameters short to intermediate term
  • Poor evidence that gains are maintained long term
  • Impact on QOL and function not adequately investigated
  • Considerable evidence surgery minimally impacts pre-op function
Q6.What counselling points are given to the family?
  • Risk of malignancy
  • Risk of further deformity
  • Functional impairment may not improve with surgery - it mainly improves cosmesis
Q7.What is the differential diagnosis of the forearm deformity?
  • Tumour
  • Malunion
  • Trevor disease (dysplasia epiphysealis hemimelia)
Q8.How do you confirm the diagnosis and assess the patient?
  • Look for other lesions -> ?HME
  • Rule out malignancy
  • Assess other complications: ROM, nerve compression
  • Assess current function
Q9.What are the details of surgical treatment?
  • Excise the exostosis to stop differential growth
  • Ulnar lengthening (acute vs gradual depends on length)
  • Timing of surgery is controversial
▸ Slide 559 · mucopolysaccharidosesDysplasia Syndromes · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What clinical features suggest mucopolysaccharidosis?
  2. Describe the XR features of MPS.
  3. What is the underlying defect and inheritance of MPS?
  4. How is MPS diagnosed?
  5. Which MPS is most likely to survive into adulthood and what are the clues?
  6. How many mucopolysaccharidoses are there and how are they diagnosed?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What clinical features suggest mucopolysaccharidosis?
  • Proportional dwarfism; coarse facies, hypertelorism, short nasal bridge, broad mouth, wide gap between teeth
  • Short neck, kyphoscoliosis
  • UL: carpal tunnel syndrome
  • LL: genu valgum, joint contracture (laxity in Morquio)
  • Also pectus carinatum, organomegaly
Q2.Describe the XR features of MPS.
  • C spine: odontoid hypoplasia with C1/2 instability
  • TL spine: kyphoscoliosis, bullet-shaped vertebra
  • UL: bullet-shaped phalanges
  • Hips: wine glass pelvis (broad flat ilium, inferior constriction), coxa vara, dysplastic hip
  • Knees: genu valgum
Q3.What is the underlying defect and inheritance of MPS?
  • Lysosomal enzyme deficiency with aggregation of partially degraded glycosaminoglycan
  • Disrupts the hypertrophic zone in the physis
  • AR, except Hunter's (X-linked recessive)
Q4.How is MPS diagnosed?
  • Urine: excess mucopolysaccharides
  • Skin: fibroblast culture to test enzyme activity
  • Intrauterine chorionic villous sampling
  • Morquio: keratan sulphate
Q5.Which MPS is most likely to survive into adulthood and what are the clues?
  • Morquio
  • Normal IQ
  • Cloudy cornea
Q6.How many mucopolysaccharidoses are there and how are they diagnosed?
  • Group of 13 metabolic syndromes
  • AR, except Hunter's (X-linked recessive)
  • Diagnosed by biochemical analysis of urine (Morquio: keratan sulphate)
▸ Slide 560 · Morquio most likely survive into adulthoodDysplasia Syndromes · 4 questions expand
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Question list
Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What enzyme deficiencies cause Morquio and which is more severe?
  2. What accumulates in Morquio and when does it present?
  3. What are the clinical features of Morquio?
  4. Describe the XR features of Morquio.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What enzyme deficiencies cause Morquio and which is more severe?
  • Type A: galactosamine 6 sulphate sulphatase deficiency - more severe
  • Type B: beta galactosidase deficiency
  • (Gaucher is beta glucocerebrosidase)
Q2.What accumulates in Morquio and when does it present?
  • Accumulation of keratan sulphate
  • Presents at 18-24 months
  • AR inheritance
Q3.What are the clinical features of Morquio?
  • Proportionate dwarfism
  • Normal IQ
  • Waddling gait
  • Genu valgum
  • Thoracic kyphosis, corneal clouding
Q4.Describe the XR features of Morquio.
  • Thickened skull, wide ribs
  • Vertebral beaking, thoracic kyphosis with platyspondylia
  • Coxa vara with unossified femoral head
  • Bullet-shaped metacarpals
  • Odontoid hypoplasia leading to cervical instability
▸ Slide 561 · Clinical photo showing patient with asymmetrical scapulaDysplasia Syndromes · 14 questions expand
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Q1-Q1414 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is Sprengel shoulder and what are its associations?
  2. What are the XR features of Sprengel shoulder?
  3. Describe the Cavendish classification.
  4. What are the principles and options for surgery in Sprengel shoulder?
  5. What is Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  6. What are the associations and surgical indications in Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  7. What are the clinical findings of Sprengel shoulder?
  8. What should be documented on examination of Sprengel shoulder?
  9. What further imaging and workup is needed for Sprengel shoulder?
  10. What is the epidemiology of Sprengel shoulder?
  11. What are the Woodward and Green procedures for Sprengel shoulder?
  12. Describe the Klippel-Feil classification.
  13. What is the activity advice and prognosis in Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  14. What other features are associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is Sprengel shoulder and what are its associations?
  • Congenital undescended scapula (4-6th C spine pharyngeal arch; failure of caudal migration to T2-7 during 9th to 12th weeks of gestation (9th-12th weeks); interruption of embryonic subclavian blood supply)
  • Associations: Klippel-Feil, congenital scoliosis, cervical spina bifida, VACTERL +/- situ invertus (situs inversus)
Q2.What are the XR features of Sprengel shoulder?
  • Omovertebral bar (best seen on lateral/oblique C spine XR)
  • Clavicle uptilt
  • High riding scapula
  • Small scapula (transverse > vertical)
  • Inferomedial corner medial tilt + glenoid downward tilt
Q3.Describe the Cavendish classification.
  • 1: Very mild, not detectable in clothing
  • 2: Mild, 1-2cm higher
  • 3: Moderate, 2-5cm higher
  • 4: Severe, >5cm higher (superior angle near occiput)
Q4.What are the principles and options for surgery in Sprengel shoulder?
  • Excise omovertebral bar + superior trapezius release at C4
  • Relocation of the scapula
  • Clavicle morselized osteotomy preserving periosteum (decreases brachial plexus injury)
  • Aim: improve shoulder abduction (~30 degrees, Caverndish by 1 grade)
  • OT if cosmetic problem or abduction < 120 at 3-8y (too late -> more nerve injury)
  • Woodward and Green procedures both improve 50 degrees
Q5.What is Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  • Fusion of more than two cervical vertebrae; (SGM 1 gene at chromosome 8
  • Triad: Low posterior hair line (hairline), short webbed neck, decreased cervical movement (normal F/E, decreased side bending)
  • XR triad: unsegmented C spine (commonest C2/3), ADI, degeneration (may have basilar invagination)
Q6.What are the associations and surgical indications in Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  • Renal aplasia 33%, deafness 30%, congenital heart disease 15-30%
  • Atlantoaxial instability ~50%; adjacent level disease 100%
  • OT if pain, instability, neurology; check CV and UG systems before OT
  • If C2 involved: no contact sports
Q7.What are the clinical findings of Sprengel shoulder?
  • Hypoplastic and undescended scapula (right in the photo)
  • Low hairline, short webbed neck
  • No scapular winging; check for upward tilting of the clavicle from the front
Q8.What should be documented on examination of Sprengel shoulder?
  • Neck: short, stiff; document bar, shoulder movement, abduction power
  • Medial wing + supero-medial angle move superiorly -> glenoid pointed inferiorly
  • Look for UL abnormalities (VACTERL), periscapular muscle fibrosis/weakness, distal NV status (syringomyelia)
  • Look for scoliosis/kyphosis/back pitting (spina bifida)
Q9.What further imaging and workup is needed for Sprengel shoulder?
  • CT and MRI spine for the bar and spinal problems such as dural ectasia or diastematomyelia
  • Cardiac and renal workup; rule out other C spine problems
  • Klippel-Feil associations: C spine failure of segmentation, C1/2 instability, cranial settling
Q10.What is the epidemiology of Sprengel shoulder?
  • 10-30% bilateral
  • Present in 1/3 of Klippel-Feil
  • Association: scoliosis, spinal dysraphism, VACTERL
Q11.What are the Woodward and Green procedures for Sprengel shoulder?
  • Woodward: detachment and distal advancement of the midline origin of parascapular muscles
  • Green: extraperiosteal detachment, hold scapula in new position with spring wire traction and spica casting for 3 weeks
  • Both improve 50 degrees
Q12.Describe the Klippel-Feil classification.
  • Type I: extensive fusion
  • Type II: only 1 or 2 vertebrae in the cervical spine
  • Type III: fusion in part of the thoracic and/or lumbar spine in addition to Type I or Type II
Q13.What is the activity advice and prognosis in Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  • If C2 involved: no contact sports
  • If lower: usually asymptomatic until adjacent levels degenerate (100%) -> contact sports OK
  • Check CV and UG systems before OT
Q14.What other features are associated with Klippel-Feil syndrome?
  • Hearing loss, micrognathia, torticolis (torticollis), scoliosis
  • Brainstem abnormalities/basilar invagination, congenital cervical stenosis
  • MRI to rule out intraspinal cord abnormalities
▸ Slide 562 · KlippelTrnaunay syndromeDysplasia Syndromes · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the triad of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?
  2. How do Parkes Weber, Proteus and Maffucci syndromes differ?
  3. What are the treatment principles for Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?
  4. What is the limitation of YAG laser?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the triad of Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?
  • Capillary malformation (port wine stain)
  • Venous/ lymphatic malformation
  • Soft tissue hypertrophy
Q2.How do Parkes Weber, Proteus and Maffucci syndromes differ?
  • Parkes Webers syndrome: capillary, lymphatic and venous malformations with AV fistulas
  • Proteus: capillary and venous malformations, macrodactylyl (macrodactyly), hemihypertrophy, lipomas, pigmented nevi, scoliosis
  • Maffucci: lymphatic and venous malformation + multiple enchondromas
Q3.What are the treatment principles for Klippel-Trenaunay syndrome?
  • Resection may be dangerous; consider embolization
  • Ligation of feeding vessels is of no help
  • High flow AV malformations difficult; staged partial excision mostly palliative
  • Proximal ligation increases collateralization; embolisation risks digital ischemia
  • YAG laser in direct contact allows subtotal excision of complicated hemangiomas
Q4.What is the limitation of YAG laser?
  • Will not stop bleeding from vessels with lumen diameters greater than 1mm
  • Direct contact YAG allows subtotal excision of lesions previously thought untreatable
▸ Slide 563 · DwarfismDysplasia Syndromes · 3 questions expand
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Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is proportionate dwarfism and what are the examples?
  2. Classify disproportionate dwarfism with examples.
  3. What is the difference between proportionate and disproportionate dwarfism?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is proportionate dwarfism and what are the examples?
  • Symmetric decrease in both trunk and limb length
  • MPS
  • Cleidocranial dysplasia
Q2.Classify disproportionate dwarfism with examples.
  • Short-trunk: Kniest syndrome, spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia
  • Short-limb: achondroplasia, diastrophic dysplasia
Q3.What is the difference between proportionate and disproportionate dwarfism?
  • Proportionate: symmetric decrease in both trunk and limb length (e.g. MPS, cleidocranial dysplasia)
  • Disproportionate: short-trunk (Kniest, SED) or short-limb (achondroplasia, diastrophic dysplasia)
▸ Slide 564 · Epiphyseal hypoplasiaDysplasia Syndromes · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the genetics of spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED)?
  2. Which spinal and respiratory complications must be screened for in SED?
  3. What are the XR findings in SED?
  4. What is multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) and its genetics?
  5. What are the clinical and XR features of MED?
  6. What are the clinical features of SED?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the genetics of spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia (SED)?
  • COL2A1 on chromosome 12
  • Congenita: onset at birth, AD
  • Tarda: onset >5 years, X-linked recessive
Q2.Which spinal and respiratory complications must be screened for in SED?
  • Odontoid hypoplasia -> atlantoaxial instability (AADI) - risk of cervical cord injury
  • Restrictive lung disease on CXR
  • Progressive deformity: coxa vara, genu valgum and kyphoscoliosis
Q3.What are the XR findings in SED?
  • Hip dysplasia + coxa vara +/- genu valgum
  • Platyspondyly
  • Odontoid hypoplasia
  • CXR: restrictive lung disease
Q4.What is multiple epiphyseal dysplasia (MED) and its genetics?
  • AD
  • Type 1: COMP (cartilage mineralization protein; mutation increases proteoglycan in chondrocyte)
  • Type 2: COL9A2
  • Presents in early adolescence
Q5.What are the clinical and XR features of MED?
  • Disproportionate short stature; spine normal; IQ normal
  • Limbs: coxa vara, genu valgum, ankle valgus, acromelia (short digits)
  • Immature XR: small, flattened, fragmented epiphysis
  • Mature XR: flattening of WB joint + incongruity +/- early OA
  • Double layered patella
Q6.What are the clinical features of SED?
  • General: disproportionate short stature, rhizomelic pattern
  • Face: hypertelorism, cleft palate; chest: pectus carinatum
  • Limbs: coxa vara, genu valgum, equinovarus
  • Spine: kyphoscoliosis, odontoid hypoplasia -> AADI
▸ Slide 565 · Cleidocranial Dysplasia (Dysostosis)Dysplasia Syndromes · 3 questions expand
slide 565
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Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the genetic basis of cleidocranial dysplasia?
  2. What are the clinical features of cleidocranial dysplasia?
  3. How is cleidocranial dysplasia managed?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the genetic basis of cleidocranial dysplasia?
  • AD, RUNX2/CBFA1 mutation affecting osteoblast
  • Skeletal dysplasia affecting bones formed by intramembranous ossification
Q2.What are the clinical features of cleidocranial dysplasia?
  • Typical clavicular absence/hypoplasia, hypermobile shoulder
  • Proportional short stature
  • Midline: delayed suture closure -> frontal bossing; delayed pubic ossification; delayed permanent teeth
  • Coxa vara
  • Shortened MP of 3-5 fingers
Q3.How is cleidocranial dysplasia managed?
  • Only coxa vara requires treatment
  • The other features are not described as requiring treatment
▸ Slide 566 · Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva is an extremely rare connective tissue disDysplasia Syndromes · 2 questions expand
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP)?
  2. What is the genetics of FOP?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva (FOP)?
  • Extremely rare connective tissue disease
  • Mutation affecting the body's repair mechanism -> fibrous tissue (muscles, tendons, ligaments) ossifies spontaneously or when damaged
  • Deformed big toe + very stiff joints
  • No cure; median survival ~40
Q2.What is the genetics of FOP?
  • Mutation of the ACVR1 gene (activin A type I receptor, a BMP type-1 receptor)
  • AD allele on chromosome 2q23-24
  • Variable expression, complete penetrance
  • Most are spontaneous mutations
▸ Slide 567 · Duchenne muscular dystrophyDysplasia Syndromes · 8 questions expand
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Q1-Q88 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the genetic basis and pathophysiology of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
  2. What examination findings are characteristic of DMD?
  3. How is DMD diagnosed?
  4. What is the natural history and non-operative management?
  5. What are the surgical considerations in DMD?
  6. How does DMD differ from SMA?
  7. What are the history and gait features of DMD?
  8. What is the aim of management in DMD?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the genetic basis and pathophysiology of Duchenne muscular dystrophy?
  • X-linked recessive - Xp21.2 dystrophin gene
  • Absent cytoskeletal dystrophin protein
  • Dystrophin provides structural stability to the dystroglycan complex of the muscle cell membrane
Q2.What examination findings are characteristic of DMD?
  • Gower sign - climbs up own legs to stand (proximal weakness)
  • Calf pseudohypertrophy, tiptoeing, waddling gait
  • Scarf and Meryon signs in the floppy baby
  • Hyperlordosis (compensates hip FFC), equinovarus foot, hip FABER and knee FFC contractures
Q3.How is DMD diagnosed?
  • CPK elevated
  • EMG/NCV
  • Gold standard: muscle biopsy - absent dystrophin
  • Echo for cardiomyopathy
Q4.What is the natural history and non-operative management?
  • Wheelchair bound at 10 years, death at 20 years (respiratory difficulty)
  • Steroid 0.75mg/kg/day: improves strength, slows weakening, prevents scoliosis, prolongs ambulation
  • Delays deterioration of pulmonary function
Q5.What are the surgical considerations in DMD?
  • Soft tissue releases to prolong ambulation
  • Hip containment NOT beneficial
  • Scoliosis surgery: progresses 1-2 degrees per month from age 8-10; indications Cobb >30, FVC <30%; needs spinopelvic fusion
  • Malignant hyperthermia common intraop
Q6.How does DMD differ from SMA?
  • SMA has absent reflexes (present in DMD)
  • SMA has earlier onset
  • SMA has no pseudohypertrophy
Q7.What are the history and gait features of DMD?
  • FHx; progressive weakness affecting proximal muscles first (gluteus wasting)
  • Gait abnormalities: delayed walking, toe walking, waddling gait, difficulty climbing stairs, hopping or jumping
Q8.What is the aim of management in DMD?
  • Keep the patient ambulatory as long as possible
  • Steroid 0.75mg/kg/day acutely improves strength, slows weakening, prevents scoliosis formation and prolongs ambulation
  • Delays deterioration of pulmonary function
▸ Slide 568 · Nail patellar syndromeDysplasia Syndromes · 4 questions 1 check expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the diagnostic tetrad of nail patella syndrome?
  2. What is the genetics and what associations should be screened for?
  3. What else should be assessed in nail patella syndrome?
  4. What other conditions cause congenital patellar dislocation?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the diagnostic tetrad of nail patella syndrome?
  • Atrophic nails (usually thumb)
  • Hypoplastic/absent patella - empty trochlear groove
  • Iliac horns (pathognomonic, 80%)
  • Hypoplastic radial head +/- subluxation -> FFC
Q2.What is the genetics and what associations should be screened for?
  • AD, LMX1B mutation (Lim homeobox transcription factor 1b)
  • Type 5 collagen abnormality (as taught in the lecture; see factcheck)
  • Association: glaucoma
  • Association: nephropathy
Q3.What else should be assessed in nail patella syndrome?
  • External tibial torsion
  • Thickened, tight ITB and lateral retinaculum
  • Tight quadriceps
Q4.What other conditions cause congenital patellar dislocation?
  • Larson syndrome
  • Arthrogryposis
  • Down syndrome
Fact check

Nail patella syndrome is caused by a type 5 collagen abnormality — Not supported by current evidence — NPS is caused by loss-of-function mutations in LMX1B, a transcription factor; a type V collagen abnormality is not an established cause — medium confidence — source