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Local revision copy · not clinical advice

Others

Topic 12 · slides 392–400 · 9 slides · 53 questions
9 slides
▸ Slide 392 · OthersOthers · 2 questions expand
Slide render
slide 392
Question list
Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Which section of the course does this slide belong to?
  2. What source material is available for this slide?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Which section of the course does this slide belong to?
  • Others - miscellaneous topics
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
Q2.What source material is available for this slide?
  • Slide image only - no speaker notes
  • Not in the speaker notes
▸ Slide 393 · Longitudinal(incision(preferred,(avoid(damage(Gluteal(nerve(and(skin(necrosis(Others · 3 questions expand
Slide render
slide 393
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Why is a longitudinal incision preferred in this approach?
  2. Describe the incision used.
  3. What structures are at risk of damage in this approach?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Why is a longitudinal incision preferred in this approach?
  • Avoids damage to the gluteal nerve
  • Avoids skin necrosis
Q2.Describe the incision used.
  • Extends from 1cm lateral to the PSIS
  • Upwards to 2cm above the crest
  • Elevate gluteus medius/periosteum
Q3.What structures are at risk of damage in this approach?
  • Cluneal nerve
  • Superior gluteal vessels
▸ Slide 394 · Lateral cutaneous nerve of thighOthers · 6 questions expand
Slide render
slide 394
Question list
Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and from where does it arise?
  2. Describe the course of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh into the thigh.
  3. Where does the nerve cross and divide?
  4. What are the common anatomical variations of the nerve?
  5. What does the anterior branch communicate with?
  6. Where can the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh be injured, and which condition does it cause?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and from where does it arise?
  • Is a cutaneous nerve that innervates the skin on the lateral part of the thigh
  • From the lumbar plexus, L2, L3 dorsal branches
Q2.Describe the course of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh into the thigh.
  • Passes under the inguinal canal, 2 cm medial to the ASIS
  • Splits and pierces the fascia, running over the lateral thigh in the subcutaneous region, superficial to sartorius
Q3.Where does the nerve cross and divide?
  • Most commonly crosses the lateral border of sartorius 5.4 cm distal and 1.2 cm medial to ASIS
  • Divides into anterior and posterior divisions on the surface of sartorius 5 cm distal to ASIS
  • 27% divide before the inguinal ligament
Q4.What are the common anatomical variations of the nerve?
  • Over the ligament
  • Over and under the ligament
  • Over the iliac crest
Q5.What does the anterior branch communicate with?
  • Communicates with the femoral nerve and saphenous nerve --> peripatellar plexus
Q6.Where can the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh be injured, and which condition does it cause?
  • 1. Harvest of bone graft
  • 2. Ilioinguinal approach
  • 3. Pelvis external fixation
  • 4. Smith-Peterson approach
  • Injury causes meralgia paresthetica
▸ Slide 395 · Cast wedgingOthers · 3 questions expand
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slide 395
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the indication and timing for cast wedging?
  2. Describe the open wedging technique.
  3. Where is the wedge placed relative to the deformity?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the indication and timing for cast wedging?
  • To correct small angular malalignments
  • Delayed 3-4 days until the cast is fully hardened
Q2.Describe the open wedging technique.
  • Half-circumferential cut with a 1cm bridge
  • Wedge applied on the concave side
  • Cuts perpendicular to the plane of angulation; bridge lies on the axis of rotation
  • Cork keeps the wedge open; fresh POP bandaging ~5cm distal and proximal
Q3.Where is the wedge placed relative to the deformity?
  • On the concave side of the angulation
  • The 1cm bridge lies on the axis of rotation
▸ Slide 396 · 50% - die from non-survivable injuries immediately, or within minutesOthers · 4 questions expand
slide 396
Question list
Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. How are trauma deaths distributed over time according to the slide?
  2. What characterises the first peak of trauma deaths?
  3. What characterises the second peak of trauma deaths?
  4. What characterises the third peak of trauma deaths?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.How are trauma deaths distributed over time according to the slide?
  • 50% - die from non-survivable injuries immediately, or within minutes
  • 30% - survive the initial trauma, but die within 1-3 hours
  • 20% - die from complications at a late stage during the 6 weeks after injury
Q2.What characterises the first peak of trauma deaths?
  • 50% of deaths
  • Due to non-survivable injuries, immediately or within minutes
Q3.What characterises the second peak of trauma deaths?
  • 30% of deaths
  • Survive the initial trauma but die within 1-3 hours
Q4.What characterises the third peak of trauma deaths?
  • 20% of deaths
  • Die from complications at a late stage, during the 6 weeks after injury
▸ Slide 397 · Non unionOthers · 12 questions expand
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slide 397
Question list
Q1-Q1212 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the FDA definition of non union and the definition of delayed union?
  2. How is delayed union treated?
  3. Describe the Paley and descriptive classifications of non union.
  4. What are the causes of non union according to the diamond concept?
  5. Describe the X-ray findings and postulated causes in this subtrochanteric non union.
  6. How is this subtrochanteric non union managed?
  7. How is non union assessed?
  8. What are the management principles in non union?
  9. What are the local causes of atrophic versus hypertrophic non union?
  10. Describe the X-ray findings and management in the distal radius non union.
  11. How are bone defects managed?
  12. Why is exchange nailing used for non union and what are the results?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the FDA definition of non union and the definition of delayed union?
  • FDA: fracture at least 9 months old with no signs of healing for 3 consecutive months
  • Delayed union: bone unable to achieve union in the expected time frame (6 months)
Q2.How is delayed union treated?
  • Conservative: shock wave USG (early, 2-3 months), vibration (train muscle mass, proprioception, promote union)
  • Electrical stimulation - increased expression of BMP2,7 and osteoblast proliferation (direct current, pulsed electromagnetic field)
  • Operative: dynamization, bone graft, bone marrow
Q3.Describe the Paley and descriptive classifications of non union.
  • Paley type 1: <1cm defect (then lax/stiff/deformity)
  • Paley type 2: >1cm defect (shortening/gap/both)
  • Descriptive: atrophic, oligotrophic, hypertrophic (horse hoof/elephant foot), pseudarthrosis
  • Also infective non union
Q4.What are the causes of non union according to the diamond concept?
  • Diamond concept: inductive, conductive, osteogenic, host and vascular factors
  • Mechanical instability: inadequate fixation, bone loss, poor bone quality
  • Inadequate vascularity: severe soft tissue injury with periosteal stripping, malalignment, bone loss, distraction
  • Poor bone contact: soft tissue interposition, malalignment, bone loss, distraction
Q5.Describe the X-ray findings and postulated causes in this subtrochanteric non union.
  • Previous subtrochanteric fracture fixed with a long cephalomedullary device + 1 cerclage wire
  • No healing, bone defect, varus alignment, no broken implant
  • Atrophic non union
  • Biology: watershed area; mechanical: wide medullary canal, large deforming force; varus increases the bending moment, leading to increase in fracture strain per unit length; the region experiences the highest tensile stress according to Koch's diagram
Q6.How is this subtrochanteric non union managed?
  • Deal with both the biological and mechanical problems
  • Exchange nail: larger nail provides more stability
  • Reaming provides bone graft
Q7.How is non union assessed?
  • Rule out infection (initial open injury, wound infection, erythema/sinus, blood tests)
  • Delineate the cause: atrophic vs hypertrophic non union
  • Atrophic: biological +/- mechanical causes; consider periosteal/endosteal blood supply
  • r/o complication due to non union (broken implant, AVN, arthritis)
Q8.What are the management principles in non union?
  • Alignment, stability, bone potential to heal, +/- adjacent joint stiffness
  • Rule out infection
  • Address patient/systemic factors: DM, nutrition, smoking, compliance
  • Formulate a plan: bring in blood supply, optimal reduction, stable fixation, +/- manage bone defect
Q9.What are the local causes of atrophic versus hypertrophic non union?
  • Atrophic - bone factors: vulnerable blood supply, minimal bone contact, high stress, no periosteum
  • Atrophic - fracture factors: open injury, butterfly fragment with no blood supply
  • Atrophic - surgeon factors: diminished blood supply (distruption of endosteum + periosteum blood supply) - disruption of endosteal/periosteal supply, non-optimal fixation method
  • Hypertrophic - bone factors: minimal bone contact, high stress, no periosteum
  • Hypertrophic - fracture factors: degree of initial comminution --> poor initial stability if fixed with load sharing device
  • Hypertrophic - surgeon factors: wrong implant, poor reduction, poor fixation skill
Q10.Describe the X-ray findings and management in the distal radius non union.
  • Fracture shaft of distal radius fixed with 6-hole DCP with compression
  • Positive callus, fracture gap still seen; need proper AP + lateral X-ray to delineate alignment; no ulnar fracture
  • One distal screw very near the fracture gap
  • Hypertrophic/oligotrophic non union
  • Management: rule out infection, delineate cause (initial malreduction, unstable fixation), whole forearm X-ray, revision plating + bone graft
Q11.How are bone defects managed?
  • Further management depends on size of defect and integrity of soft tissue coverage, vascularity of tissue bed
  • Small <6cm: acute shortening, non-vascularised bone graft, Papineau technique
  • Intermediate up to 12cm: vascularised bone graft (e.g. fibular), can also provide soft tissue coverage in same flap
  • Large >6cm: acute shortening + distraction osteogenesis, bone transport, Masquelet technique
  • Amputation for significant bone/soft tissue/NV defect or patients unfit for multiple surgery
Q12.Why is exchange nailing used for non union and what are the results?
  • Largest series by group in Edinburgh, published in 2016 BJJ: union 75% after 1st exchange, rising to 95% after 2nd exchange
  • In infected non union: 35% after 1st, 65% after second
  • Works by 3 mechanisms: larger nail improves mechanical stability; Reaming increases periosteal blood flow – stimulate the formation of periosteal new bone; reaming products are osteoinductive
  • Simple JBJS 2016: the strongest predictor of failure of exchange nailing was infection and suggested other treatment options such as ilizarov treatment should be preferred
▸ Slide 398 · 1/12 post opOthers · 11 questions expand
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slide 398
Question list
Q1-Q1111 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings and clinical presentation in this infected non union.
  2. What causes of non union are listed (diamond concept)?
  3. What are the risk factors for infected non union?
  4. What investigations are used in suspected infected non union?
  5. What are the general principles for managing an infected non union with an implant?
  6. What is the role of ESR/CRP and imaging in acute infected non union?
  7. How is an infected non union with a stable implant managed?
  8. How is an infected non union with an unstable implant managed and how is infection timing classified?
  9. How does infected non union differ from prosthetic joint infection in terms of implant retention?
  10. What are the principles of management in infected non union?
  11. What is the Masquelet technique?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings and clinical presentation in this infected non union.
  • Infected nonunion: previous fracture of the tibia, fibula and syndesmosis, fixed with plates + syndesmosis screw
  • Tibia reduction acceptable; syndesmosis widening (reduced tibiofibular overlap, increased clear space)
  • Periosteal elevation over the lateral tibia, no lucency around implant, fracture not healed
  • Suspected infected implant
  • At 1/12 post op: pain, redness
Q2.What causes of non union are listed (diamond concept)?
  • Mechanical instability: inadequate fixation, Bone loss, Poor bone quality
  • Inadequate vascularity: severe soft tissue injury with periosteal stripping, malposition or malalignment, bone loss, distraction
  • Poor bone contact: soft tissue interposition, malposition or malalignment, bone loss, distraction
Q3.What are the risk factors for infected non union?
  • Patient: old, smoking, DM, PVD, previous injury
  • Injury: open fracture, wound comminution
  • Surgeon: multiple operations, stripped periosteum, bone necrosis during drilling
Q4.What investigations are used in suspected infected non union?
  • Blood: ESR, CRP, albumin
  • CT and USG for collection
  • Gallium scan
  • Intraoperative deep cultures are most reliable
Q5.What are the general principles for managing an infected non union with an implant?
  • Confirm infection, assess implant stability and bone union
  • Healed -> remove implant
  • Not healed + unstable -> remove and keep stable
  • Not healed + stable -> antibiotics
Q6.What is the role of ESR/CRP and imaging in acute infected non union?
  • ESR, CRP: 100% PPV, 80% NPV
  • CT and USG for subperiosteal and intramedullary collection
  • Debridement and intraoperative culture, start antibiotics afterwards
Q7.How is an infected non union with a stable implant managed?
  • Retain the implant + debridement
  • PMMA antibiotic to fill defects and coat the implant
  • Antibiotics x 3 months (BJJ 2021 Shen) + soft tissue coverage
  • Second stage after 6-8 weeks: remove cement/implant, revision fixation + autograft
Q8.How is an infected non union with an unstable implant managed and how is infection timing classified?
  • Remove implant + debridement + external fixation
  • Gentamicin beads/cement
  • Acute <2 weeks, delayed 2-10 weeks, chronic >10 weeks
  • Low grade infection can coexist with a healing fracture
Q9.How does infected non union differ from prosthetic joint infection in terms of implant retention?
  • Aim in fracture-related infection: stability until union
  • Retention is successful in 50-90% of infected fracture implants
  • Joint replacement: only 15-50% successful (aimed at long-term function)
  • The concept is different from joint replacement infection
Q10.What are the principles of management in infected non union?
  • Optimise host factors
  • Identify the microorganism involved
  • Debridement + antibiotics
  • Reconstruction: soft tissue coverage + bone defect management (antibiotic beads for small defects, Masquelet for larger)
Q11.What is the Masquelet technique?
  • Antibiotic-impregnated cement beads/spacer deliver local high-dose antibiotics
  • Reaming also debrides; circular external fixator allows shortening of any defect
  • Soft tissue envelope reconstructed with a vascularised flap
  • Second-stage bone grafting at ~8 weeks to the pseudomembranous tube (prevents graft resorption)
▸ Slide 399 · D1 post opOthers · 5 questions 1 check expand
slide 399
Question list
Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the likely timing and reported incidence of this periprosthetic fracture?
  2. Describe the Vancouver classification as given for periprosthetic fractures.
  3. How is a periprosthetic femoral fracture managed according to stem stability?
  4. What are the risk factors and management of acetabular-side periprosthetic fractures?
  5. How can periprosthetic fractures be prevented?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the likely timing and reported incidence of this periprosthetic fracture?
  • Day 1 post op; likely an intra-operative fracture
  • Incidence 4% cementless, 0.4% cemented, 0.1% post op
  • Stem appears stable, bone stock adequate
Q2.Describe the Vancouver classification as given for periprosthetic fractures.
  • Type A diaphyseal
  • Type B metaphyseal
  • Type C distal to stem (not amendable to longest stem)
  • Subtypes: cortical perforation, undisplaced, displaced
Q3.How is a periprosthetic femoral fracture managed according to stem stability?
  • Stable stem -> fix
  • Unstable stem -> revise with a long stem
  • Lateral plating: at least 3 screws and 3 cables (cables resist bending; screws resist rotation and control length)
Q4.What are the risk factors and management of acetabular-side periprosthetic fractures?
  • Patient: osteoporosis, radiotherapy, dysplasia/fusion, revision surgery
  • Surgeon: underream
  • Implant: cementless, elliptical cup
  • Stable -> protected WB 12 weeks; unstable -> add screw/jumbo cup/fix + protected WB 12 weeks
Q5.How can periprosthetic fractures be prevented?
  • Pre-op planning
  • Careful exposure
Fact check

Vancouver classification types are A diaphyseal, B metaphyseal, C distal to stem — non-standard mapping — Standard (postoperative) Vancouver classification: A = trochanteric region (AG/AL), B = around/just below the stem (B1 well-fixed, B2 loose, B3 loose + poor bone), C = well below the stem — medium confidence — source

▸ Slide 400 · FlapOthers · 7 questions expand
slide 400
Question list
Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the Mathes classification of muscle flaps with examples.
  2. How are flaps classified by location, blood supply and composition?
  3. Which systemic and design factors are checked before raising a flap?
  4. Describe the intra-operative principles of flap surgery.
  5. How is flap circulation monitored after surgery and what is done if it becomes impaired?
  6. Which pedicled flaps are used for proximal, middle and distal leg defects?
  7. List common free flaps and their pedicles.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the Mathes classification of muscle flaps with examples.
  • I: 1 dominant (tensor fascia lata)
  • II: 1 dominant + 1 minor (gracilis)
  • III: 2 dominant (gluteus maximus)
  • IV: multiple minor (sartorius)
  • V: 1 dominant + multiple minor (latissimus dorsi)
Q2.How are flaps classified by location, blood supply and composition?
  • Location: local (transposition, rotational, advancement, axial), regional (same limb), distant, free
  • Blood supply: random or axial
  • Composite: cutaneous, fasciocutaneous, musculocutaneous, osseocutaneous
Q3.Which systemic and design factors are checked before raising a flap?
  • Systemic: smoking, obesity, hypertension, PVD, immunosuppression
  • Flap design: type, size, pivot point, axis, arc of rotation
  • Doppler +/- to identify the pedicle; know pedicle type (Mathes I-V), with I, III, V more reliable and preferred with a broad base
Q4.Describe the intra-operative principles of flap surgery.
  • Elevation: preserve minor pedicles; complete pedicle mobilisation not required unless free flap; avoid tension during rotation and inset
  • Insetting: tunnel size = flap base x2, avoid tension, haemostasis
Q5.How is flap circulation monitored after surgery and what is done if it becomes impaired?
  • Monitor flap circulation initially
  • If impaired: consider systemic haemodynamic problem or local arterial/venous obstruction
  • Can try to release stitches and reposition the flap
  • Avoid pressure, constrictive bandage and motion (splint)
Q6.Which pedicled flaps are used for proximal, middle and distal leg defects?
  • Proximal: medial gastrocnemius (medial sural artery)
  • Middle: soleus (branches of posterior tibial and peroneal arteries)
  • Distal: distant/reverse sural flap (superficial sural artery via peroneal perforator)
Q7.List common free flaps and their pedicles.
  • LD flap (thoracodorsal artery), gracilis (medial circumflex femoral), serratus anterior (subscapular)
  • Groin flap (superficial circumflex iliac, 2.5cm inferior to inguinal ligament)
  • ALT flap (descending branch of lateral circumflex femoral artery)
  • Radial forearm flap (radial artery; skin +/- muscle +/- bone)