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Local revision copy · not clinical advice

Foot and Ankle

Topic 10 · slides 261–295 · 35 slides · 265 questions
35 slides
▸ Slide 261 · F&AFoot and Ankle · 2 questions expand
Slide render
slide 261
Question list
Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What does this F&A slide cover?
  2. What foot and ankle conditions or anatomy should be revised from this slide?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What does this F&A slide cover?
  • Topic: Foot and Ankle
  • No speaker notes provided - the slide image is the only source
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
Q2.What foot and ankle conditions or anatomy should be revised from this slide?
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
  • Topic: Foot and Ankle
▸ Slide 262 · Describe photo:Foot and Ankle · 15 questions expand
slide 262
Question list
Q1-Q1515 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the clinical photo of an adult acquired flatfoot.
  2. What is the differential diagnosis of acquired flatfoot (bilateral vs unilateral)?
  3. What are the possible sources of pain in acquired flatfoot?
  4. How do you clinically assess a flatfoot?
  5. How is the foot arch maintained and what is the pathophysiology of PTTD?
  6. What is the aim of management in adult acquired flatfoot?
  7. What is the anatomy and action of the posterior tibialis tendon (PTT)?
  8. What is the Johnson classification of PTTD?
  9. How is stage 1 PTTD managed?
  10. How is stage 2 PTTD managed?
  11. Which tendon transfer is preferred for PTTD - FHL or FDL?
  12. How are stage 3 and stage 4 PTTD managed?
  13. What is the FAI 2020 consensus statement on adult acquired flatfoot?
  14. What is the role of arthroereisis in flatfoot?
  15. What are the positions of fusion in a triple arthrodesis?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the clinical photo of an adult acquired flatfoot.
  • Adult with forefoot abduction
  • Decreased medial foot arch (midfoot supinated in relation to hindfoot)
  • Hindfoot valgus
  • Medial prominence
Q2.What is the differential diagnosis of acquired flatfoot (bilateral vs unilateral)?
  • Bilateral/any: PTTD, tarsal coalition, congenital vertical talus
  • Unilateral: post-traumatic (Lisfranc, spring ligament injury), degenerative, Charcot
  • Bilateral systemic: rheumatoid arthritis, neuromuscular (spina bifida), cerebral palsy
  • Generalised ligamentous laxity (Marfan, Ehlers-Danlos)
Q3.What are the possible sources of pain in acquired flatfoot?
  • Medial: PTT, deltoid ligament, tarsal tunnel
  • Lateral: subfibular impingement
  • Heel: plantar aponeurosis, retrocalcaneal bursitis
  • Diffuse: ankle, subtalar joint
  • Proximal: knee, back; distal: bunion, metatarsal heads
Q4.How do you clinically assess a flatfoot?
  • Determine whether the flatfoot and hindfoot valgus are flexible or rigid, and identify cause and complications (arthritis)
  • Inspection: double heel raise and single leg heel raise (PT power, flexibility)
  • Too many toes sign, navicular bulging signifying accessory navicular; look for scars (post trauma)
  • Palpate sinus tarsi, deltoid ligament, PTT; test PT, FDL/ FHL power (transfer)
  • Subtalar ROM and residual forefoot supination with correction; Silverskiold test
  • Beighton score, check hands for RA, check spine if bilateral; assess gait
  • X-ray: weight-bearing DP (Simmons angle, talocalcaneal angle, talus uncoverage) and lateral (Meary angle, calcaneal pitch, foot collapse at TN/NC/TTJ), No feature of previous fracture/ fragmentation, Saltzman view for hindfoot alignment, XR ankle mortise, Scannogram for LL alignment, MRI for PTT
  • Bloods to rule out RA
Q5.How is the foot arch maintained and what is the pathophysiology of PTTD?
  • Medial longitudinal arch static support: bony (calcaneum, talus, navicular, medial 3 rays) and soft tissue (spring ligament, plantar aponeurosis, deltoid ligament)
  • Dynamic support: PTT, peroneus longus and intrinsics
  • Lateral arch: calcaneum, cuboid, lateral 2 rays with long and short plantar ligaments, bifurcate ligament
  • Transverse arch: keystone is 2nd MT and middle cuneiform, supported by the Lisfranc ligament
  • Pathophysiology: PTT tenosynovitis causes loss of dynamic support, failure to lock the transverse tarsal joint --> further cause static stabilizer to fail
  • Result: loss of one foot of the tripod, hindfoot valgus, MF/FF compensatory supination to maintain the tripod; PTT has a watershed blood supply 2-6cm proximal to insertion
Q6.What is the aim of management in adult acquired flatfoot?
  • Stable, plantigrade, painless foot
  • Rebalance the foot through bone and/or soft tissue to restore a balanced tripod
  • Treat according to the patient's symptoms
Q7.What is the anatomy and action of the posterior tibialis tendon (PTT)?
  • Origin: posterior fibula, tibia and interosseous membrane
  • Inserts: navicular tuberosity, 1st – 3rd cuneiform, cuboid, 2-4 metatarsals, sustentaculum tali
  • Invertor of the subtalar joint
  • Plantarflexion of the ankle joint
  • Adductor of the forefoot
  • Watershed blood supply 2-6cm proximal to insertion
Q8.What is the Johnson classification of PTTD?
  • 1: PTT power intact, no flatfoot
  • 2: A flexible flatfoot, B abducted forefoot, C forefoot varus
  • 3: Subtalar joint arthritis
  • 4: Deltoid ligament insufficiency
Q9.How is stage 1 PTTD managed?
  • Physio for TA stretching
  • Orthosis: UCBL, moulded AFO, medial heel wedge, longitudinal arch support
  • Tenosynovectomy
Q10.How is stage 2 PTTD managed?
  • Combination of bony + soft tissue procedure, tailored to the individual’s deformities and muscle imbalance
  • Soft tissue: FHL or FDL tendon transfer; TA lengthening also protects the transfer; +/- spring ligament reconstruction
  • Coronal plane bone: calcaneal wedge osteotomy (85% pain relief/improved function at mean 15y, Chadwick BJJ 2015)
  • Sagittal plane bone: 1st TMTJ fusion or Cotton medial cuneiform opening wedge osteotomy for forefoot varus - restores tripod
  • Transverse plane bone: lateral column lengthening for forefoot abduction - protect FDL transfer
Q11.Which tendon transfer is preferred for PTTD - FHL or FDL?
  • FHL is stronger
  • FDL gives better functional outcomes because FHL is harder to mobilise
Q12.How are stage 3 and stage 4 PTTD managed?
  • Stage 3: subtalar fusion +/- triple or double (TN + subtalar) fusion
  • Double fusion (TN + subtalar) has similar functional scores and shorter OT time (Int Orthop 2021 Fadle)
  • Stage 4: deltoid ligament reconstruction +/- ankle replacement or fusion
Q13.What is the FAI 2020 consensus statement on adult acquired flatfoot?
  • Rename the condition Progressive Collapsing Foot Deformity (PCFD)
  • New classification to stage the deformity
  • A: hindfoot valgus deformity
  • B: midfoot/forefoot abduction deformity
  • C: forefoot varus/medial column instability
  • D: peritalar subluxation/dislocation
  • E: ankle instability
Q14.What is the role of arthroereisis in flatfoot?
  • Subtalar arthroereisis induces a triplanar modification of the foot limiting pronation
  • EFFORT review 2017 and AAOS 2021: no long-term studies, only poor quality evidence supporting its use
Q15.What are the positions of fusion in a triple arthrodesis?
  • Subtalar joint 5 degrees valgus (TA is not a deforming force)
  • TN joint: adequate coverage of the talar head; restore hindfoot-forefoot relationship so the 1st and 5th MT heads both touch the ground
  • Restore the height of the medial arch
  • CC joint: neutral (in situ)
▸ Slide 263 · High medial arch, hindfoot varus, midfoot cavus, forefoot adducted and pronated Foot and Ankle · 18 questions expand
slide 263
Question list
Q1-Q1818 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the clinical features of a cavovarus foot.
  2. What do you ask about in the history of a cavovarus foot?
  3. What are the examination findings in cavovarus foot?
  4. Explain the Coleman block test.
  5. How is cavovarus foot managed surgically?
  6. What additional examination findings are checked in cavovarus foot?
  7. What is a cavus foot?
  8. What are the causes of cavus foot?
  9. What are the X-ray findings in cavovarus foot?
  10. When is a neurologist referral made in cavovarus foot and what tests are requested?
  11. What is the aim and conservative management of cavovarus foot?
  12. How is surgical management of cavovarus foot tailored to flexibility?
  13. What soft tissue procedures are used in cavovarus foot?
  14. What bony procedures are used in cavovarus foot?
  15. How are claw toes in cavovarus foot managed?
  16. What is the Jones procedure for the big toe in cavovarus foot?
  17. How is equinus managed in cavovarus foot surgery?
  18. Explain forefoot-driven versus hindfoot-driven cavovarus.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the clinical features of a cavovarus foot.
  • High medial arch with midfoot cavus
  • Hindfoot varus, forefoot adducted and pronated in relation to hindfoot
  • Claw toes, peek-a-boo heel sign
Q2.What do you ask about in the history of a cavovarus foot?
  • History of neurological disease, family history (CMT)
  • Instability, metatarsalgia, fatigue, shoewear problems
  • Callus, ulcers, pain (OA), stress fractures, Muller Weiss
  • Functional limitation and expectations
Q3.What are the examination findings in cavovarus foot?
  • LL muscle wasting - inverted champagne bottle appearance
  • Forefoot clawing, adduction, pronation; midfoot cavus; hindfoot varus equinus
  • Coleman block test for flexibility and forefoot-driven deformity
  • Gait: broad based ataxic gait; check lateral ankle instability (ATFL, CFL)
  • Full neuro exam (cerebellar), sensation, spine and hands
Q4.Explain the Coleman block test.
  • Decides whether cavovarus is hindfoot or forefoot driven and whether flexible
  • Block supports the 5th MT and heel, freeing the 1st MT
  • Hindfoot corrects if the deformity is forefoot driven and flexible
  • Rationale: hindfoot varus is compensatory to keep the lateral rays on the ground
Q5.How is cavovarus foot managed surgically?
  • Combination of bony procedure with soft tissue procedure, tailored to the individual’s deformities and muscle imbalance
  • Flexible: bony + soft tissue procedures for forefoot and midfoot +/- TA lengthening
  • Rigid: add midtarsal and hindfoot bony procedures
  • Arthritis/progressive disease: fusion
  • Soft tissue: PL to PB transfer, Steindler plantar aponeurosis release
  • Bone: Dwyer lateral closing wedge calcaneal osteotomy, 1st ray dorsiflexion osteotomy, triple arthrodesis
Q6.What additional examination findings are checked in cavovarus foot?
  • Sole: callosities and ulcers
  • Scars and correctability
  • Muscle power: PT, PB, tib ant, PL
  • Lateral ankle instability (ATFL and CFL)
  • Silverskiold test
Q7.What is a cavus foot?
  • Fixed plantar flexion deformity of the forefoot in relation to the hindfoot
  • Results in an abnormally high arch
  • 2/3 are neurological
Q8.What are the causes of cavus foot?
  • Neurological: CP/stroke/Friedreich's ataxia
  • Neurological: syringomyelia/diastematomyelia/spina bifida
  • Neurological: SMA, polio, CMT, DMD
  • Non-neurological: post-traumatic (Volkmann contracture, talar neck malunion)
  • Non-neurological: residual club foot
Q9.What are the X-ray findings in cavovarus foot?
  • DP: talocalcaneal angle and talo-1st MT angle
  • Lateral: see-through sign, calcaneal pitch, Meary angle, calcaneal-1st MT angle (Hibb's angle N>150)
  • Lateral: lateral kite angle <25 (parallelism), double talar head sign, bell-shaped cuboid
  • Look for degeneration; obtain ankle mortise and Saltzman view
  • MRI spine if neurological disease is suspected
Q10.When is a neurologist referral made in cavovarus foot and what tests are requested?
  • Refer if neurological disease is suspected
  • ECG NCS
  • Sural nerve biopsy, muscle biopsy, CK
Q11.What is the aim and conservative management of cavovarus foot?
  • Systemically delineate and treat the underlying cause
  • Locally provide a plantigrade, stable, pain-free, shoeable, preferably mobile foot
  • Conservative: physio for stretching and accommodative shoewear to relieve pressure
Q12.How is surgical management of cavovarus foot tailored to flexibility?
  • Flexible: bony + soft tissue procedure for forefoot and midfoot; hindfoot should correct with these +/- TA lengthening
  • Rigid: add midtarsal + hindfoot bony procedure
  • Arthritis/progressive disease: fusion
  • +/- lateral ankle ligamentous reconstruction if ankle instability
Q13.What soft tissue procedures are used in cavovarus foot?
  • Hindfoot varus: PL to PB transfer
  • Hindfoot varus: PT to cuneiform transfer
  • Hindfoot varus: tib ant to cuneiform transfer
  • Midfoot cavus: Steindler plantar aponeurosis release
Q14.What bony procedures are used in cavovarus foot?
  • Hindfoot: Dwyer lateral closing wedge calcaneal osteotomy
  • Hindfoot: lateral calcaneal slide osteotomy
  • Midfoot cavus: 1st ray dorsiflexion osteotomy
  • Midfoot cavus: TMTJ (Jahss) or tarsal (Japas) osteotomy
Q15.How are claw toes in cavovarus foot managed?
  • PIPJ flexible: Girdlestone-Taylor FDL to EDL transfer
  • PIPJ rigid, MTPJ flexible: DuVries (P1 head + P2 base resection/fusion) + EDL tenotomy
  • PIPJ rigid, MTPJ rigid not subluxed: DuVries + EDB tenotomy + MTPJ dorsal capsulotomy + EDL lengthening
  • PIPJ rigid, MTPJ rigid and subluxed: Weil osteotomy
Q16.What is the Jones procedure for the big toe in cavovarus foot?
  • EHL to MT neck transfer
  • Fuse the IPJ
Q17.How is equinus managed in cavovarus foot surgery?
  • Usually corrects after the other deformities are corrected
  • TA lengthening is left until other corrections are done
Q18.Explain forefoot-driven versus hindfoot-driven cavovarus.
  • FF driven: PL >> ATT causes 1st MT plantarflexion; PT >> PB causes hindfoot varus
  • 1st MT plantarflexion + forefoot pronation -> medial forefoot strikes ground first
  • Subtalar joint inverts to bring the lateral forefoot down, so hindfoot varus is compensatory
  • Recruited EHL causes claw toe; MTPJ extension tightens the plantar aponeurosis via the windlass, worsening cavus and varus
  • Hindfoot cavus (calcaneocavus): weak triceps surae with relatively strong PTT/FHL plantarflexing the entire forefoot
▸ Slide 264 · Charcot Marie Tooth DiseaseFoot and Ankle · 7 questions expand
Slide render
slide 264
Question list
Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
  2. What is the genetic basis of CMT?
  3. What are the three main types of CMT?
  4. What are the clinical features and diagnosis of CMT?
  5. How is CMT managed non-operatively?
  6. How is CMT managed surgically?
  7. What are the differential diagnoses of CMT?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease?
  • Hereditary motor sensory neuropathy
  • Peroneal muscle atrophy
  • Prevalence 1:2500 - most common inherited neuropathy
  • Usually autosomal dominant (can be AR or X-linked)
  • Affects motor more than sensory
Q2.What is the genetic basis of CMT?
  • Peripheral myelin protein 22 - defective Schwann cell membrane protein
  • Causes defective myelin sheath formation
  • Duplication of chromosome 17
Q3.What are the three main types of CMT?
  • Type 1: demyelinating, presents 10-20s, AD, cavus foot
  • Type 2: axonopathy, 20s+, flaccid foot, less disabling
  • Type 3: X-linked recessive, demyelinating + axonal degeneration
Q4.What are the clinical features and diagnosis of CMT?
  • Equinocavovarus +/- rigid hindfoot
  • Weakened TA and peroneal muscles - foot drop during swing phase
  • Check the hands
  • Diagnosis: NCV/EMG, DNA/chromosome analysis
  • No role for nerve biopsy
Q5.How is CMT managed non-operatively?
  • Always non op first
  • Stretching
  • Orthosis: need a solid AFO
  • No posterior leaf AFO due to inversion and eversion weakness
Q6.How is CMT managed surgically?
  • Follow cavovarus principles
  • Traditionally fusion as the disease is progressive
  • Reconstruction has lower rates of degeneration and reoperation compared with triple arthrodesis (Ward JBJS 2008)
Q7.What are the differential diagnoses of CMT?
  • Spina bifida
  • SMA
  • Polio
  • Friedreich ataxia
▸ Slide 265 · Friedreich's AtaxiaFoot and Ankle · 5 questions expand
slide 265
Question list
Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the genetic basis of Friedreich's ataxia?
  2. How is Friedreich's ataxia diagnosed?
  3. How does Friedreich's ataxia present clinically?
  4. What are the orthopaedic and systemic associations of Friedreich's ataxia?
  5. What is the prognosis of Friedreich's ataxia?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the genetic basis of Friedreich's ataxia?
  • Autosomal recessive
  • Frataxin mutation affecting mitochondria production
Q2.How is Friedreich's ataxia diagnosed?
  • Clinical + family history + genetic testing
  • It is the commonest spinocerebellar degenerative disease
Q3.How does Friedreich's ataxia present clinically?
  • Staggering, wide-based gait
  • Triad: ataxia, areflexia, upgoing plantar
Q4.What are the orthopaedic and systemic associations of Friedreich's ataxia?
  • Cavovarus foot
  • Scoliosis
  • Cardiomyopathy - assess before planning surgery
Q5.What is the prognosis of Friedreich's ataxia?
  • Wheelchair-bound around 30 years
  • Death around 50 years
▸ Slide 266 · HF calcaneus (not varus)Foot and Ankle · 12 questions expand
slide 266
Question list
Q1-Q1212 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the deformity in this spina bifida patient.
  2. How does a calcaneus foot present and how is it managed?
  3. What is spina bifida?
  4. What are the risk factors for spina bifida?
  5. What prenatal screening is done for spina bifida?
  6. What is the postnatal treatment of spina bifida and what must you beware of?
  7. Classify spina bifida.
  8. What are the features of a pre-L3 spina bifida lesion?
  9. What are the features of an L4 (L5 defect) spina bifida lesion?
  10. What are the features of an L5 (S1 defect) spina bifida lesion?
  11. What are the features of S1 or below spina bifida lesions?
  12. Why must VP shunt function be checked before spine surgery in spina bifida?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the deformity in this spina bifida patient.
  • Hindfoot calcaneus (not varus)
  • Midfoot cavus with 1st ray plantarflexion
  • Claw toes
  • Scar at heel from previous TA lengthening
  • Calf muscle wasting
Q2.How does a calcaneus foot present and how is it managed?
  • History of instability and pain, previous TA lengthening
  • Neuromuscular causes: spina bifida and polio
  • Gait: slapping (lack of gastrocnemius eccentric contraction); heel ulcer
  • XR: pistol grip deformity
  • Mx: non-operative; tibialis anterior to TA transfer; dome calcaneal osteotomy with posterior tuberosity proximalisation
Q3.What is spina bifida?
  • Neural tube defect
  • Failure of neural tube closure at 3 weeks
Q4.What are the risk factors for spina bifida?
  • Folate deficiency
  • Maternal diabetes
  • Valproic acid
Q5.What prenatal screening is done for spina bifida?
  • Maternal AFP level (high = bad)
  • Amniotic fluid AFP
  • Structural scan
Q6.What is the postnatal treatment of spina bifida and what must you beware of?
  • Neurosurgery: untethering of cord, drainage of syrinx, screen for Arnold-Chiari syndrome
  • Beware malignant hyperthermia
  • Beware latex allergy
  • Beware neurogenic bladder
Q7.Classify spina bifida.
  • Occulta: vertebral arch failure
  • Meningocele: meninges protrusion, no neural element
  • Myelomeningocele: meninges and neural elements protrusion
  • Rachischisis: neural elements protrusion with no coverings
Q8.What are the features of a pre-L3 spina bifida lesion?
  • Hip FABER contracture
  • Knee flexion contracture (FFC)
  • Feet equinovarus + claw toe
  • Non-ambulatory
Q9.What are the features of an L4 (L5 defect) spina bifida lesion?
  • Hip: full quadriceps, Trendelenburg gait
  • Knee: recurvatum (unopposed knee extension)
  • Feet: calcaneus
  • Limited community ambulator
Q10.What are the features of an L5 (S1 defect) spina bifida lesion?
  • High normal
  • Knee normal
  • Feet: calcaneus
  • Community ambulator
Q11.What are the features of S1 or below spina bifida lesions?
  • Only claw toe
  • Near normal
Q12.Why must VP shunt function be checked before spine surgery in spina bifida?
  • Check VP shunt function before spine surgery
  • Otherwise it may result in death
▸ Slide 267 · Unilateral knee recurvatum + genu valgumFoot and Ankle · 17 questions expand
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slide 267
Question list
Q1-Q1717 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the limb deformity in this polio patient.
  2. What do you assess in a polio patient with deformity?
  3. What is the current disability history in this polio patient?
  4. How does quadriceps weakness cause knee flexion contracture and how is it managed?
  5. How is knee recurvatum managed in polio?
  6. How does exaggeration of the passive stance phase cause knee recurvatum in polio?
  7. What are the aims of management in polio deformity?
  8. How does gluteal weakness present in polio and how is it managed?
  9. What is the FABER contracture in polio and what problems does it cause?
  10. How is FABER contracture managed in polio?
  11. What is poliomyelitis?
  12. What is the pattern of poliomyelitis infection?
  13. What are the phases of poliomyelitis?
  14. What is post-polio syndrome?
  15. What are the diagnostic criteria for post-polio syndrome?
  16. What is the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome?
  17. What are the 5 potential problems after the residual paralysis stage?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the limb deformity in this polio patient.
  • Right lower limb: hip extension, knee extension +/- recurvatum
  • Ankle plantarflexed, tibial external rotation, genu valgum
  • Contralateral hip and knee flexion compensating for LLD
  • Pelvic obliquity; no claw toes
Q2.What do you assess in a polio patient with deformity?
  • Check shoewear
  • Gait: Trendelenburg, short limb, recurvatum, hand-knee gait
  • Sitting: inspect for neuropathic ulcers and callosity
  • Contractures: Silverskiold (Achilles), knee FFC (recurvatum), hip FABER (Ober)
  • Power of antigravity muscles: ankle plantarflexion, knee extension, hip extension
Q3.What is the current disability history in this polio patient?
  • Pain from ulcers, callosity, stress fracture
  • Instability
Q4.How does quadriceps weakness cause knee flexion contracture and how is it managed?
  • Knee collapse and unopposed hamstrings perpetuate flexed knee posture
  • Ankle PF + hip flexion bring CG forward to lock knee; FFC becomes contracture over time
  • Hand-knee gait; first line hinged KAFO
  • Flexible: biceps femoris to quadriceps transfer (needs normal hip extension/ankle PF, no recurvatum)
  • Rigid: <15 degrees serial casting, 15-30 degrees hamstring/ITB/posterior capsule release, 30-70 degrees distal femoral extension osteotomy, >70 degrees staged release then osteotomy
Q5.How is knee recurvatum managed in polio?
  • <15 degrees: observe
  • Solid AFO
  • Triple tenodesis (gracilis, hamstrings, ITB)
  • Posterior capsular advancement; gracilis/semitendinosus or biceps femoris/tibialis tenodesis
Q6.How does exaggeration of the passive stance phase cause knee recurvatum in polio?
  • By exaggeration of passive stance phase: knee recurvatum assists in locking of the knee (ITB becomes extensor, CG falls in front of knee)
  • Posterior knee capsules and hamstrings act as restraints, counterbalanced by hip extension and ankle PF
  • Over time the knee loses its posterior constraint causing instability; pain occurs over the anterior knee from excessive hyperextension (perpetuated by fixed equinus)
Q7.What are the aims of management in polio deformity?
  • Maximise gait efficiency
  • Prevent deformity with growth
  • Prevent upper limb contractures and scoliosis
Q8.How does gluteal weakness present in polio and how is it managed?
  • Gluteus medius/minimus weakness -> Trendelenburg gait
  • Gluteus maximus weakness -> back lurch
  • Abductors: external oblique transfer
  • Glut max (iliopsoas to GT transfer)
Q9.What is the FABER contracture in polio and what problems does it cause?
  • Frog posture: hamstring, hip flexors, TFL spasm -> ITB contracture
  • Secondary pelvic obliquity
  • Leads to scoliosis and increase contralateral hip dislocation
Q10.How is FABER contracture managed in polio?
  • Mild: fasciotomy
  • Moderate: Ober release
  • Ober release: ASIS - sartorius + TFL; AIIS - rectus femoris; GT - anterior fibres of glut med/min; LT - iliopsoas
  • Severe: Campbell procedure
  • Campbell: outer table glut med/min + TFL; inner table iliacus; AIIS rectus femoris; ASIS distalisation of sartorius
Q11.What is poliomyelitis?
  • Non progressive motor paralysis secondary to polio virus infection at anterior horn cells
  • Enterovirus, faecal-oral route
Q12.What is the pattern of poliomyelitis infection?
  • 80% asymptomatic
  • 10% flu-like
  • 10% neurological symptoms, of which 2% paralysis
Q13.What are the phases of poliomyelitis?
  • Acute: flu-like symptoms, flaccid paralysis
  • Recovery: no more muscle ache, some recovery of power
  • Residual: >2 years, deformity
Q14.What is post-polio syndrome?
  • New onset weakness after a prolonged period of recovery
  • Occurs in 50% of patients
Q15.What are the diagnostic criteria for post-polio syndrome?
  • History of paralytic poliomyelitis by clinical/NCT
  • Complete recovery >15 years with neurological and functional stability
  • New onset weakness
  • New onset muscle/joint pain, deformity, cold intolerance
  • Exclude other causes
Q16.What is the pathophysiology of post-polio syndrome?
  • Immunological/viral reactivation
  • Aging/degeneration of neurons
Q17.What are the 5 potential problems after the residual paralysis stage?
  • Isolated muscle weakness - splintage, passive mobilisation
  • Deformity
  • Shortening (LLD)
  • Flail joint - may need arthrodesis or splintage
  • Vascular dysfunction
▸ Slide 268 · Describe Xray:Foot and Ankle · 12 questions expand
slide 268
Question list
Q1-Q1212 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings in a Charcot foot.
  2. What is a Charcot joint and what is its pathophysiology?
  3. What examinations differentiate infection from Charcot in the foot?
  4. What are the Eichenholtz and Brodsky classifications of Charcot?
  5. What are the principles, applications and contraindications of total contact casting?
  6. What are the surgical options and long-term aims in Charcot foot?
  7. What is the history in a suspected Charcot foot?
  8. What investigations are performed to differentiate Charcot from infection?
  9. What is the mid-term management of Charcot foot?
  10. When is surgery indicated acutely in Charcot foot and what are the difficulties?
  11. What is a superconstruct in Charcot foot surgery?
  12. What is the long-term management of Charcot foot?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in a Charcot foot.
  • Destruction of the Chopart joint with subluxation and deformity
  • Increased density with bone debris
  • +/- dislocation, +/- soft tissue swelling
  • Ddx: infection, post-trauma, Charcot (DM, syringomyelia, syphilis, leprosy)
  • The 5 Ds: destruction, debris, dislocation, deformity, density
Q2.What is a Charcot joint and what is its pathophysiology?
  • Neuropathic arthropathy: progressive, non-infectious destructive bone and joint disorder with sensory neuropathy
  • Neurotraumatic: loss of protective sensation and repeated microtrauma
  • Neurovascular: abnormal autonomic vessel tone, increased blood flow causing bone resorption
  • Causes: DM, Hansen’s disease (Leprosy), syphilis, syringomyelia, spina bifida
Q3.What examinations differentiate infection from Charcot in the foot?
  • Look for sinus, ulcer, deformities
  • Heel raise test differentiates infection from Charcot (OM has less deformity)
  • Neuro exam: 128Hz tuning fork, 10g monofilament, proprioception
  • Palpate pulses; toe pressures, ABI, transcutaneous O2 for healing potential
Q4.What are the Eichenholtz and Brodsky classifications of Charcot?
  • Eichenholtz: stage 0 (joint oedema), fragmentation, coalescence, consolidation
  • Brodsky I: 60% TMTJ
  • Brodsky II: Chopart/subtalar
  • Brodsky III: 20% ankle/calcaneal tuberosity, IV mixed, V forefoot
Q5.What are the principles, applications and contraindications of total contact casting?
  • Immobilise immediately; admit for infection, dislocation or debridement
  • Principles: increase contact surface area, evenly distribute forces, control oedema
  • Well padded, limit toe movement, change every 2-4 weeks, allow WBAT
  • Duration: forefoot 3-6 months, midfoot 6-12 months, hindfoot 12-24 months; 70-80% wound healing
  • Contraindications: passed coalescence, severe deformity, uncontrolled oedema, active infection, severe obesity
Q6.What are the surgical options and long-term aims in Charcot foot?
  • Aim: take patient through Eichenholtz stages while minimising the deformity and subsequent skin breakdown and infection; stable plantigrade shoeable foot
  • Patient education!; multidisciplinary input (endocrinologist, vascular surgeons, P&O, occu physio); Systemic: control DM (better outcomes in surgical and non-surgical treatment), optimise nutrition
  • Some centres may give bisphosphonates, but evidence is not strong; ongoing RCTs investigating denosumab in treatment of Charcot
  • Acute surgery indications: fracture, dislocation or impending skin breakdown - exostectomy + TAL
  • Superconstruct: fusion beyond zone of injury, shorten to reduce, strongest tolerated device
  • Long term: prevention, identify foot at risk, early podiatry referral
Q7.What is the history in a suspected Charcot foot?
  • Ask about DM, trauma, other peripheral neuropathies
  • 50% of patients have pain - dorsal columns are affected but the spinothalamic tract remains intact
  • Assess functional limitations
Q8.What investigations are performed to differentiate Charcot from infection?
  • Bloods
  • WBC scan
  • Biopsy
  • Infection: C/ST +ve
  • Charcot: bone and cartilage debris within synovium
Q9.What is the mid-term management of Charcot foot?
  • Midterm management: CROW boot after contact casting: bivalved AFO with full foot enclosure, hard outer shelf to prevent deformity, rigid rocker bottom base, custom foam padding
  • Double rocker shoe modifications reduce ulceration risk at the plantar apex of the deformity
Q10.When is surgery indicated acutely in Charcot foot and what are the difficulties?
  • Fracture, dislocation or impending skin breakdown
  • Usually exostectomy + TAL; deformity correction with rigid fixation and immobilisation is risky; final option is amputation
  • Difficulties: bleeding, wound infection, failed fixation
Q11.What is a superconstruct in Charcot foot surgery?
  • Fusion extends beyond the zone of injury
  • Bone resection shortens the extremity to allow adequate reduction
  • Use the strongest device tolerated by the soft tissue envelope
  • Applied in a position that maximises mechanical function
Q12.What is the long-term management of Charcot foot?
  • Aim at prevention
  • Identify the foot at risk
  • Early referral and frequent podiatry assessment
▸ Slide 269 · *Tendon achilles ruptureFoot and Ankle · 11 questions 1 check expand
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slide 269
Question list
Q1-Q1111 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the clinical findings of an Achilles tendon rupture.
  2. What risk factors and mechanisms do you ask about in Achilles rupture?
  3. What investigations are performed for Achilles rupture?
  4. How is an acute Achilles rupture treated and what is the evidence?
  5. How is a delayed presentation with a gap managed?
  6. What are the complications and rehabilitation after Achilles repair?
  7. What is the non-operative treatment for an old, low-demand patient with Achilles rupture?
  8. What is the essence of accelerated rehabilitation after Achilles repair?
  9. What anatomy must be known for an FHL transfer?
  10. Describe the anatomy of the Achilles tendon.
  11. Describe the Cook and Purdam model of Achilles degeneration.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the clinical findings of an Achilles tendon rupture.
  • Ankle swelling with absence of the normal Achilles tendon contour
  • Palpate the gap (size of gap, distance between insertion and gap)
  • Thompson's test positive
Q2.What risk factors and mechanisms do you ask about in Achilles rupture?
  • Mechanism: eccentric loading of gastrosoleus in middle-aged patients
  • Hx: AS, steroid, fluroquinolones, flat foot, gout, hyperlipidemia, chronic renal disease
  • Chronicity of injury and pre-existing pain
  • Poor wound healing risks: PVD, smoking, diabetes
Q3.What investigations are performed for Achilles rupture?
  • USG to delineate site and size, complete versus partial rupture
  • X-ray: calcinosis suggests pre-existing tendinosis - may need intraop debridement and preparation for tendon gap
  • Kager's triangle is distorted when the tendon is ruptured
Q4.How is an acute Achilles rupture treated and what is the evidence?
  • Treatment is individualised: age, functional demand, tendon retraction, timing
  • Repair aims for intrinsic healing + aggressive rehab
  • JBJS 2001 meta-analysis: less rerupture with surgery (2% vs 20%)
  • Accelerated functional rehab concept: Willits RCT (JBJS 2010) - no significant difference in rerupture rate or power
  • Later confirmed with (Soroceanu JBJS 2012 metanalysis)
  • NEJM 2022 Myhrvold Norway multicentre RCT MIS vs open vs nonop: Rupture rate: conservative 6.2% vs 0.6%; Infection MIS 5.2% vs open 2.8% vs 0.6% nonop; Overall surgery was not associated with better outcomes
  • Should be shared decision making, weighing avoiding surgery against higher rerupture risk
Q5.How is a delayed presentation with a gap managed?
  • Aim to reconstruct tension and length - shorten first, then retension
  • Gap <3cm: direct repair
  • Gap 3-5cm: turn-down flap, VY plasty +/- augmentation (Lindholm, plantaris)
  • Gap >5cm: FHL transfer (dispensable, good vascularity, in phase with gastroc)
  • FHL released at the Knot of Henry, retrieved to repair site +/- bone tunnel at calcaneal tuberosity
Q6.What are the complications and rehabilitation after Achilles repair?
  • Complications: skin necrosis 2%, rerupture 2%, deep infection 1%, sural nerve injury (especially percutaneous)
  • Accelerated rehab: 0-2wk CAM NWB 2cm raise; 2-6wk protected weight bear, 1cm raise, active PF/DF to neutral; 6-8wk WBAT, no heel raise, gradual DF ex, OKC/CKC ex; 8-12wk strengthening + proprioception; >12wk plyometrics
  • Return to athletic activity at 4-6 months
Q7.What is the non-operative treatment for an old, low-demand patient with Achilles rupture?
  • Conservative with an accelerated rehab program
  • UKSTAR trial Lancet 2020: cast vs functional bracing - no difference in functional outcomes
Q8.What is the essence of accelerated rehabilitation after Achilles repair?
  • Early weight bearing and early mobilisation
  • allow collagen fibril crosslinking, also healing tendons undergo intrinsic healing, increasing load to failure
Q9.What anatomy must be known for an FHL transfer?
  • FHL crosses superficial to FDL at the Knot of Henry
  • The Knot of Henry lies below the bony prominence of the navicular
Q10.Describe the anatomy of the Achilles tendon.
  • Collagen accounts for 70% of dry weight, of which 95% is type I, with a very small amount of elastin
  • Fibres rotate 90 degrees toward insertion into the calcaneal tuberosity (gastrocnemius laterally, soleus medially)
  • Watershed blood supply at 5-6cm from insertion
Q11.Describe the Cook and Purdam model of Achilles degeneration.
  • Reactive: myofibroblast proliferation and collagen synthesis in response to repeated mechanical stress
  • Reparative: inflammation of the paratenon as an attempt at soft tissue repair
  • Degenerative: vascular constriction leading to ischaemia
Fact check

NEJM 2022 trial infection rates: minimally invasive surgery 5.2%, open 2.8%, nonoperative 0.6% — misattributed — Those percentages are sensory nerve injury rates; deep infection was 1.1% nonoperative, 1.1% open and 1.7% minimally invasive surgery — source

▸ Slide 270 · Xr showing bony spur over the posterosuperior aspect of calcaneal tuberosity, alFoot and Ankle · 2 questions expand
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slide 270
Question list
Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the diagnosis from this X-ray?
  2. What is Haglund syndrome?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the diagnosis from this X-ray?
  • Bony spur over the posterosuperior aspect of the calcaneal tuberosity
  • Calcification over the insertion of the Achilles tendon
  • Diagnosis: Haglund deformity with insertional Achilles tendinopathy
Q2.What is Haglund syndrome?
  • Triad of retrocalcaneal pain
  • Insertional tendinopathy
  • Haglund deformity
▸ Slide 271 · Clinical photo showing plantar aspect of foot with 2 ulcers over medial MT headFoot and Ankle · 14 questions 1 check expand
slide 271
Question list
Q1-Q1414 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the ulcer shown on the plantar aspect of the foot.
  2. What is the Brodsky depth-ischemia classification of diabetic foot ulcers?
  3. What neurological and vascular examination would you perform?
  4. How do you differentiate a neuropathic from an arterial ulcer?
  5. How would you manage this patient with a neuropathic ulcer and absent pulses?
  6. When and at what level would you amputate?
  7. What blood tests and X-ray would you request for this foot ulcer?
  8. Which laboratory tests assess healing potential?
  9. What further vascular investigations would you perform?
  10. What is the pathophysiology of the diabetic foot ulcer?
  11. How would you risk-stratify a diabetic foot?
  12. What is the principle of total contact casting?
  13. What local wound care is used?
  14. What long-term surveillance does an at-risk foot need?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the ulcer shown on the plantar aspect of the foot.
  • Erythematous base with punched out edges
  • No exposed tendon or bone, no pus
  • Surrounded by callosities
  • Associated hallux deformity with the 2nd and 3rd toes in clawed position
  • Site and deformities suggest a DM neuropathic ulcer
Q2.What is the Brodsky depth-ischemia classification of diabetic foot ulcers?
  • Depth: 0 at risk, 1 superficial ulcer, 2 deep ulcer (tendon or joint exposed), 3 extensive ulcer or abscess
  • Ischemia: A not ischemic, B ischemia without gangrene, C partial forefoot gangrene, D complete gangrene
  • 4+4 system combining depth and ischemia
Q3.What neurological and vascular examination would you perform?
  • Proprioception
  • Vibration with 128 Hz tuning fork
  • Semmes Weinstein 5.07 for protective sensation
  • Palpate pulses, ABI
  • Check muscle power PL, PB, TA, PT; Silverskiold test; shoewear
Q4.How do you differentiate a neuropathic from an arterial ulcer?
  • Neuropathic: plantar, not painful, foot deformity, pulse likely present, punched out lesion
  • Arterial: tip of foot or edges, painful, atrophic changes, absent pulse, fibrotic base, no surrounding callosity
Q5.How would you manage this patient with a neuropathic ulcer and absent pulses?
  • Multidisciplinary: medical, vascular, P&O, ortho; patient education
  • Goal: ulcer free, functional, plantigrade foot fitting a brace or shoe, with minimal complications and hospital stay
  • Systemically control/correct risk factors eg DM, PVD; improve nutrition
  • 1. unload prominent area: total contact casting (increases contact area, transmits load proximally, typically 6 months)
  • Prevent infection: daily dressing (Medihoney), debridement or amputation
Q6.When and at what level would you amputate?
  • Indications: dangerous (infected), dead (gangrene), damn nuisance
  • Level balances healing potential against energy expenditure
  • Longer residual limb is more energy conserving; the exception is Symes
  • Order: Transmetatarsal > Symes > Lisfranc > Chopart > transtibial
  • Lisfranc and Chopart need TA lengthening
Q7.What blood tests and X-ray would you request for this foot ulcer?
  • WCC (>1.5), CRP, ESR, albumin (lecturer quotes >30 g/dL; see factcheck for unit correction)
  • XR to look for fragmentation signifying Charcot arthropathy or osteomyelitis
Q8.Which laboratory tests assess healing potential?
  • Serum albumin >3.0 g/dL
  • Total lymphocyte count >1,500/mm3
Q9.What further vascular investigations would you perform?
  • ABI >0.45
  • Ischemic index (Doppler pressure at intended level / brachial sBP) >0.5
  • Absolute toe pressure: minimum for healing 40 mmHg, normal 100 mmHg
  • Transcutaneous O2 pressure of toe >40 mmHg
  • In this patient the pulse is not palpable; DM patients can have mixed cause of ulcer
Q10.What is the pathophysiology of the diabetic foot ulcer?
  • Neurology (most important), vasculopathy, or mixed
  • Sensory: loss of protective sensation; 90% who fail to sense 10 g with the 5.07 Semmes-Weinstein monofilament for 1 s; 128 Hz vibration at the base of the big toe nail
  • Motor: muscle imbalance causing deformity (most common common peroneal nerve)
  • Autonomic: drying of skin from glandular dysfunction
  • Angiopathy present in 60%
  • Net effect: mechanical stress on skin that is more prone to injury due to drying, and lacks protective sensation
Q11.How would you risk-stratify a diabetic foot?
  • By sensation, pulse, deformity and ulcer
  • Low if all normal; medium if one impaired; high if >1 impaired or previous ulcer; active ulcer
  • High risk: screening every 3 months; immediate attention if Charcot
Q12.What is the principle of total contact casting?
  • Increase contact surface area and transmit vertical load proximally
  • Cast in plantigrade to prevent weight bearing and limit toe movement
  • Typically cast for 6 months
  • Also corrects deformity
Q13.What local wound care is used?
  • Daily dressing; wound nurse uses Medihoney - hygroscopic to dehydrate the wound
  • Contains glucose oxidase producing small amounts of H2O2 and lowers pH to speed healing
  • Debridement or amputation
Q14.What long-term surveillance does an at-risk foot need?
  • Screen the at-risk foot: NV status, deformity, footwear, ulcers
  • Refer medical for home glucose monitoring control
  • Refer P&O for unloading orthosis over bony prominences; refer podiatry
Fact check

Serum albumin threshold for healing potential is Alb >30g/dL — wrong units; 30 g/dL is physiologically impossible — Threshold is serum albumin >3.0 g/dL (= 30 g/L); total lymphocyte count >1,500/mm3 (>1.5 x10^9/L)

▸ Slide 272 · Symes amputationFoot and Ankle · 3 questions expand
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slide 272
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a Symes amputation?
  2. Describe the technique of a Symes amputation.
  3. What are the common complications of a Symes amputation?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a Symes amputation?
  • Amputation at the level of the talotibial joint
  • End-bearing amputation
  • More energy saving than midfoot amputation
  • Requires a patent posterior tibial artery to keep the heel pad viable
Q2.Describe the technique of a Symes amputation.
  • Fish mouth incision starting 1 cm distal and anterior to both malleoli, one along anterior ankle joint and one at 90 deg along the CCJ
  • Ligate posterior tibial artery as distal as possible
  • Expose the ankle joint
  • Resect bone 0.5 cm above the joint line
  • Drill holes over anterior tibia and fibula and attach the heel pad
Q3.What are the common complications of a Symes amputation?
  • Posterior migration of the heel pad
  • Skin slough from overly vigorous trimming or circulation compromise over the heel pad
▸ Slide 273 · Stress view Xray showing significant talar tilt suggesting lateral ankle ligamenFoot and Ankle · 14 questions 1 check expand
Slide render
slide 273
Question list
Q1-Q1414 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What types of ankle sprain do you know of?
  2. Which lateral ankle ligaments are injured and by what mechanism?
  3. How do you distinguish low from high ankle sprain on examination?
  4. When would you X-ray a patient with an ankle sprain?
  5. What is the Chorley classification of low ankle sprain?
  6. What is the treatment for a low ankle sprain?
  7. What does the stress view X-ray show?
  8. What history and examination features determine functional vs mechanical instability?
  9. What concomitant pathologies must be ruled out in an ankle sprain?
  10. What X-ray views and MRI are used in ankle sprain?
  11. How is an acute high ankle sprain (syndesmosis injury) treated?
  12. How is chronic syndesmosis instability treated?
  13. What are the surgical options for recurrent ankle sprain with mechanical instability?
  14. What is the evidence for lateral ligament augmentation?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What types of ankle sprain do you know of?
  • Low (90%) or high
  • Eversion or inversion
Q2.Which lateral ankle ligaments are injured and by what mechanism?
  • ATFL is commonest (plantarflexion + inversion)
  • CFL is 2nd most common (dorsiflexion + inversion)
  • PTFL is the strongest
Q3.How do you distinguish low from high ankle sprain on examination?
  • Low: anterior drawer (dorsiflexion tests CFL, plantarflexion ATFL), talar tilt indicates CFL torn
  • High: syndesmosis tenderness, squeeze test, cotton test, Frick test (external rotation), cross leg test
Q4.When would you X-ray a patient with an ankle sprain?
  • Follow the Ottawa rules
  • Pain within 6 cm of the malleolar tip or unable to bear weight: X-ray ankle
  • Pain over the 5th MT base or navicular or unable to bear weight: X-ray foot
Q5.What is the Chorley classification of low ankle sprain?
  • I: partial ATFL
  • II: complete ATFL +/- partial CFL (anterior drawer I)
  • III: complete ATFL + CFL +/- capsule +/- PTFL (anterior drawer II, talar tilt)
Q6.What is the treatment for a low ankle sprain?
  • Conservative: RICE, physio, functional training, peroneal and proprioception training
  • 20% develop symptoms of chronic ankle instability
  • Surgery if bony avulsion, both medial and lateral ligament rupture, or talar tilt in athlete > 15deg
  • Recurrent instability: anatomic repair (Brostrom +/- Gould modification), anatomic reconstruction, or non-anatomic (Chrisman Snook, Watson Jones, Evans)
Q7.What does the stress view X-ray show?
  • Significant talar tilt suggesting lateral ankle ligamentous disruption
Q8.What history and examination features determine functional vs mechanical instability?
  • History: age, body build, sport, occupation
  • History of hypermobility, mechanism of injury, recurrence
  • Examination aims to determine functional vs mechanical instability and high vs low sprain
Q9.What concomitant pathologies must be ruled out in an ankle sprain?
  • Tendon: peroneal split tear or subluxing tendons
  • Bone: fractures of the anterior calcaneal process, lateral or posterior talar process, 5th MT base
  • Cartilage/joint: OCD, loose bodies
  • Predisposing factor: cavovarus
Q10.What X-ray views and MRI are used in ankle sprain?
  • Ankle AP, lateral, mortise weight bearing, Saltzman view (syndesmosis and OCD)
  • Foot DP, oblique, weight-bearing lateral
  • Stress view with ER/ varus: talar tilt 5 deg+ (or absolute 10) abnormal; anterior drawer same
  • Scannogram; MRI for OCD, cartilage status, degree of tear and tissue quality
Q11.How is an acute high ankle sprain (syndesmosis injury) treated?
  • No diastasis: immobilize 1-3 weeks, then functional rehab + strengthening
  • Diastasis: obtain MRI
  • Isolated AITFL: immobilization + NWB 4-6 weeks
  • AITFL + others: 2 syndesmosis screws, then NWB 6-12 weeks
Q12.How is chronic syndesmosis instability treated?
  • Debridement + 2 syndesmosis screws or suture button
  • Reconstruction by peroneus longus: half PL harvested from the LM tip
  • Free end secured by a 3.5 mm screw + washer, protected with a syndesmosis screw
Q13.What are the surgical options for recurrent ankle sprain with mechanical instability?
  • Anatomic repair with endogenous tissue when adequate (Brostrom +/- Gould modification: anatomical shortening and reinsertion of ATFL + CFL with inferior extensor retinaculum and fibular periosteum); fewer complications, quicker rehab
  • Anatomic reconstruction: semiT or plantaris autograft or synthetic graft replicating ATFL/CFL anatomy
  • Non-anatomic checkrein: Chrisman Snook, Watson Jones, Evans
  • Consider diagnostic arthroscopy: intraarticular pathology amenable to arthroscopy was found in 83% of Brostrom repairs
Q14.What is the evidence for lateral ligament augmentation?
  • AJSM 2019 RCT: primary repair + LARS gave better FAOS at 5-year follow-up and high Tegner scores vs MBG
  • Foot and Ankle Surg 2021 meta-analysis: no difference
Fact check

Ankle X-ray is indicated if pain is within 6 cm to the tip of the malleolus — imprecise phrasing of the Ottawa ankle rules — Rule = pain in the malleolar zone AND bone tenderness along the distal 6 cm of the posterior edge/tip of either malleolus, or inability to bear weight 4 steps — source

▸ Slide 274 · Shepred fracture: posterolateral talar tubercle #Foot and Ankle · 2 questions expand
slide 274
Question list
Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a Shepherd fracture?
  2. What is a Cedell fracture and what structure lies between the two tubercles?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a Shepherd fracture?
  • Fracture of the posterolateral talar tubercle
  • Contrast with a Cedell fracture = posteromedial talar tubercle
Q2.What is a Cedell fracture and what structure lies between the two tubercles?
  • Posteromedial talar tubercle fracture
  • The FHL tendon runs between them
▸ Slide 275 · Describe Xray:Foot and Ankle · 19 questions expand
Slide render
slide 275
Question list
Q1-Q1919 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the causes of ankle arthritis?
  2. What is the Takakura classification of ankle osteoarthritis?
  3. What are the prerequisites for a joint-preserving supramalleolar osteotomy?
  4. What are the advantages and disadvantages of ankle fusion?
  5. What is the optimal position for ankle fusion?
  6. What are the contraindications to total ankle replacement?
  7. Describe the X-ray findings on this slide.
  8. What history, examination and imaging workup is needed?
  9. What patient and disease factors guide management?
  10. What is the overall management principle and what conservative options exist?
  11. What joint-preserving options exist for ankle arthritis?
  12. What are the contraindications to ankle fusion?
  13. What techniques and fixation are used for ankle fusion?
  14. Which features do you comment on in a total ankle replacement X-ray?
  15. What are the specific complications and commonly used implants in TAR?
  16. What is the survival of the STAR prosthesis and what trial is ongoing?
  17. What are the properties of ankle cartilage and why is ankle arthritis uncommon?
  18. Describe the three generations of total ankle replacement.
  19. What is used if both the ankle and subtalar joints have OA?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the causes of ankle arthritis?
  • Post-traumatic (70%): altered load following injury; 2/3 fracture, 1/3 sports-related ligamentous injury (Iowa study)
  • Primary OA
  • Inflammatory arthritis (RA, gout)
  • Neuropathic
  • Post-infection
Q2.What is the Takakura classification of ankle osteoarthritis?
  • I: early sclerosis
  • II: medial joint space narrowing, no subchondral bone contact
  • III: subchondral bone contact
  • IIIA: medial malleolus joint space obliteration; IIIB: talar dome roof obliteration with bone contact
  • IV: all joint space with complete bone contact
Q3.What are the prerequisites for a joint-preserving supramalleolar osteotomy?
  • Medially focused ankle arthritis (stage 2/3a)
  • Nearly normal ROM
  • Minimal talar tilting
  • Realignment targets: TAS(tibial anterior surface angle)=LDTA (lateral distal tibial angle)=89, talar tilt <10, TLS(tibial lateral surface angle)=ADTA(anterior distal tibial angle)=80
Q4.What are the advantages and disadvantages of ankle fusion?
  • Advantages: more stable and durable than replacement, corrects deformity, less infection
  • Disadvantages: longer rehab (3-6 months), adjacent joint degeneration, motion loss, stress fracture, require shoe modification if active
  • Complications: adjacent joint arthritis 50% in 10 year, non union 20%
Q5.What is the optimal position for ankle fusion?
  • Neutral dorsiflexion
  • 5 deg external rotation (similar to the other side)
  • 5 deg hindfoot valgus
  • Talus translated 5mm posteriorly (anterior edge of talus same level as anterior edge of tibia - normalize gait and decrease stress at knee)
Q6.What are the contraindications to total ankle replacement?
  • Young and active patients
  • Poor bone stock or talar AVN
  • Infection
  • Poor ligamentous stability or absent malleoli
  • Significant malalignment
Q7.Describe the X-ray findings on this slide.
  • Osteoarthritic change at the tibiotalar joint: decreased joint space, subchondral sclerosis
  • Evidence of healed tibia and fibula fracture; syndesmosis appears intact
  • Diagnosis: post-traumatic ankle arthritis
Q8.What history, examination and imaging workup is needed?
  • Hx: risk factors, pain, functional limitations
  • PE: skin status, tenderness, ROM, deformity, adjacent joints, overall alignment
  • XR: LL scannogram, foot and ankle for subtalar/other joint degeneration, Saltzman view
  • MRI if early stage
Q9.What patient and disease factors guide management?
  • Patient: age, functional status, rehab potential, expectations
  • Disease: cause (post-traumatic, inflammatory - may be bilateral/osteopenic)
  • Adjacent joint OA/bilateral disease, extra-articular malalignment, bone stock
  • Joint congruency and correctability, OA stage
Q10.What is the overall management principle and what conservative options exist?
  • Principle: resume stability, correct alignment and preserve cartilage if possible
  • Conservative: physio, NSAID, rocker bottom sole, AFO to simulate fusion, off-loading brace
Q11.What joint-preserving options exist for ankle arthritis?
  • Realignment: supramalleolar osteotomy +/- soft tissue
  • Joint resurfacing: MACI, stem cells
  • Ankle scope: synovectomy, cheilectomy
  • Distraction diastasis: Exfix for 3/12 (3 months), stimulates PG production
Q12.What are the contraindications to ankle fusion?
  • Bilateral disease
  • Adjacent joint degeneration
Q13.What techniques and fixation are used for ankle fusion?
  • Arthroscopic arthrodesis in minimal deformity
  • Anterior +/- transfibular approach (fibula can be used as onlay graft)
  • Fixation: plate/screw, Blair's fusion, or retrograde hindfoot nail if subtalar degeneration
Q14.Which features do you comment on in a total ankle replacement X-ray?
  • Cement, bearing, syndesmosis fixation, alignment, sizing
  • Bone cut (just below the syndesmosis)
Q15.What are the specific complications and commonly used implants in TAR?
  • Specific complications: malleolar impingement, medial malleolus fracture
  • Common implants: STAR (no tibiofibular fusion) and Agility
Q16.What is the survival of the STAR prosthesis and what trial is ongoing?
  • STAR 70.7% survival 10 yrs; 80% at 5 years; 50% at 15 years
  • TARVA trial ongoing
Q17.What are the properties of ankle cartilage and why is ankle arthritis uncommon?
  • Thinnest cartilage, smaller contact area, stiffer
  • 1 mm shift of a fracture decreases contact surface area by 42%; medial instability by 15%
  • Uncommon because the joint is highly congruent/stable with rolling (not rolling + shear)
  • Cartilage is well nourished, with resistance to inflammatory mediators like MMP, IL1 --> stiffness does not decrease with age
Q18.Describe the three generations of total ankle replacement.
  • 1st: two components, highly constrained, cemented tibia and talus, high incidence of loosening
  • 2nd: two components, polyethylene bearing, more conservative bone cuts, cementless
  • 3rd: three components, independent PE mobile bearing, cementless, More rely on ligamentous stability
Q19.What is used if both the ankle and subtalar joints have OA?
  • Hindfoot arthrodesis nail
▸ Slide 276 · Clinical photo showing severe bilateral hallux valgus deformity with big toe devFoot and Ankle · 12 questions expand
slide 276
Question list
Q1-Q1212 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the deformity shown in the clinical photo.
  2. What would you examine in this patient?
  3. What X-ray parameters do you assess in hallux valgus?
  4. What determines the choice of surgery in hallux valgus?
  5. Compare chevron and scarf osteotomies for hallux valgus.
  6. Explain the pathophysiology of hallux valgus.
  7. What history would you take in hallux valgus?
  8. What conservative management is offered for hallux valgus?
  9. Describe the modified McBride procedure.
  10. Describe the scarf osteotomy technique and aftercare.
  11. What are the risk factors for hallux valgus?
  12. What are the deforming forces in hallux valgus?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the deformity shown in the clinical photo.
  • Severe bilateral hallux valgus: big toe deviated laterally, 1st MT medially
  • Hallux also in a pronated position
  • Lesser toe deformity is present
  • Bunion with no callosity, no scars
Q2.What would you examine in this patient?
  • Standing foot arch and hindfoot alignment; sole for callosity
  • Single and double heel raise
  • Palpate bunion, 2nd MT plantar and 5th MT head; check correctability; Check TMTJ hypermobility
  • NV exam, Silverskiold test, gait (loss of third ankle rocker)
  • Look for RA features and generalized ligamentous laxity
Q3.What X-ray parameters do you assess in hallux valgus?
  • DP foot: HVA, IMA, HVI, DMAA, 1st MTPJ congruence, sesamoid station, MTPJ/TMTJ arthritis, Maestro's cascade
  • Lateral: calcaneal pitch and Meary angle
Q4.What determines the choice of surgery in hallux valgus?
  • 1. severity, 2. congruence, 3. TMTJ laxity, 4. 1st MTPJ arthritis
  • This case needs a combined soft tissue and bony procedure: modified McBride (DSTP) + 1st MT realignment osteotomy (scarf osteotomy)
Q5.Compare chevron and scarf osteotomies for hallux valgus.
  • Chevron: no more than 1/3 shift, 1 mm ~ 1 degree of IMA correction, not for severe deformity
  • Scarf: versatile, corrects deformity in all three planes, stable allowing early weight bearing
  • Scarf complications: troughing, nonunion, hallux varus
Q6.Explain the pathophysiology of hallux valgus.
  • Defined as lateral deviation of the great toe with medial deviation of the 1st MT
  • Overall: destabilization of 1st MTPJ
  • Medial capsular attenuation; the 1st PP deviates laterally while the 1st MT drifts medially off the sesamoids
  • Plantar-lateral migration of abductor hallucis plantarflexes and pronates the phalanx
  • EHL and FHL subluxate laterally and become deforming forces; secondary contracture of the lateral capsule, adductor hallucis and intermetatarsal ligament
  • The 1st ray defunctions, the 2nd MT head takes body weight and the plantar plate eventually become attenuated
  • Sagittal imbalance causes claw toe from EDL overpull
Q7.What history would you take in hallux valgus?
  • RA, family history
  • Pain, walking tolerance
  • Expectations
Q8.What conservative management is offered for hallux valgus?
  • Wide toe box, advise against high heels
  • NSAIDs
  • Toe spreader or spacer
Q9.Describe the modified McBride procedure.
  • Lateral: release adductor hallucis from the sesamoid
  • Lateral: release the intermetatarsal ligament (watch the common digital nerve), capsulotomy, release the suspensory sesamoid-metatarsal ligament
  • Medial: capsulorrhaphy
  • Medial: bunionectomy (cut 2 mm medial to the sulcus)
Q10.Describe the scarf osteotomy technique and aftercare.
  • Medial incision; protect the dorsal medial cutaneous branch of the superficial peroneal nerve and the medial cutaneous branch of the hallux (medial plantar nerve)
  • Z-shaped osteotomy: longitudinal cut parallel to the sole, transverse cut perpendicular to the 2nd MT; distal limb points dorsal, proximal limb plantar
  • Translate the distal fragment laterally, fix with 2 x 2 mm headless compression screws
  • Rehab: heel walking for 6 weeks
  • Complications: troughing, nonunion, hallux varus
Q11.What are the risk factors for hallux valgus?
  • Multifactorial: female, genetic predisposition
  • Extrinsic: shoewear
  • Intrinsic systemic: RA, ligamentous laxity
  • Intrinsic local: flat foot, amputated 2nd toe
Q12.What are the deforming forces in hallux valgus?
  • Dynamic: adductor hallucis - pronation and adduction of the proximal phalanx
  • Dynamic: abductor hallucis - plantarflexion and pronation of the proximal phalanx
  • Dynamic: EHL and FHL subluxed laterally in relation to the MTPJ
  • Static restraint loss: plantar plate (sesamoid pronation), lateral capsule contracture, intermetatarsal ligament contracture, crist erosion
▸ Slide 277 · Xray bilateral foot showing severe hallux valgus deformityFoot and Ankle · 2 questions expand
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings and their significance.
  2. What are the indications for 1st MTPJ fusion?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings and their significance.
  • Severe bilateral hallux valgus deformity
  • OA changes at the 1st MTPJ
  • Rule out an underlying systemic cause
  • Operative management if symptomatic
Q2.What are the indications for 1st MTPJ fusion?
  • OA
  • RA
  • Spasticity
  • Fusion corrects the IMA with realignment of the hallux
▸ Slide 278 · Xray showing patient with bilateral hallux valgusFoot and Ankle · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the radiographic findings?
  2. What is the operative plan?
  3. What are the complications of hallux valgus surgery?
  4. How do MTPJ, TMTJ, severity, DMAA and HVI guide the operation?
  5. What conservative management would you try first?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the radiographic findings?
  • Bilateral hallux valgus
  • Eyeballing HVA >40 deg, IMA >13 deg
  • DMAA <10 deg
  • No 1st MTPJ arthritic changes
  • Clinically need to check 1st TMTJ laxity
Q2.What is the operative plan?
  • Proximal metatarsal osteotomy
  • Distal soft tissue release
  • Medial eminence resection and capsular repair
Q3.What are the complications of hallux valgus surgery?
  • Overcorrection causing hallux varus
  • Undercorrection (OT factor, patient factor)
  • Malunion or nonunion
  • AVN (medial artery to metatarsal neck), recurrence
  • Troughing leading to elevation or rotation of the 1st MT
Q4.How do MTPJ, TMTJ, severity, DMAA and HVI guide the operation?
  • 1st MTPJ pathological: fuse
  • 1st TMTJ lax: fuse
  • Severe HVA/IMA: proximal osteotomy; mild: distal
  • Abnormal DMAA: proximal + distal medial closing wedge; both severe: biplanar closing wedge
  • HVI >10: Akin
Q5.What conservative management would you try first?
  • Shoewear advice
  • Orthosis
  • Operate if symptomatic despite conservative measures
▸ Slide 279 · Physeal bracketFoot and Ankle · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the pathophysiology of a physeal bracket?
  2. What conditions are associated with a physeal bracket?
  3. What is the radiographic staging?
  4. How is a physeal bracket managed?
  5. What are the complications of nonoperative and operative treatment?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the pathophysiology of a physeal bracket?
  • Incomplete development of primary ossification centres
  • Aberrant physeal cartilage extends along the diaphysis and interferes with normal growth
  • Leads to a short, wide, triangular or trapezoidal phalanx
  • Longitudinally oriented cartilage bracket follows a C-shaped curve
  • Autosomal dominant when present in the hand, otherwise sporadic
Q2.What conditions are associated with a physeal bracket?
  • Rubinstein-Taybi syndrome
  • Fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva
  • Hallux varus in the feet
  • Clinodactyly and polydactyly in the hands
  • Apert's syndrome
Q3.What is the radiographic staging?
  • Stage 1: delta-shaped diaphysis with radiolucent cartilaginous epiphysis
  • Stage 2: secondary ossification centres at proximal and distal ends
  • Stage 3: complete ossification of the bracket epiphysis along one side of the diaphysis
  • Stage 4: closure of the physis
  • MRI may be needed
Q4.How is a physeal bracket managed?
  • Splinting to loosen soft tissues prior to surgery
  • Osteotomies (opening or closing wedge) in older children after closure of the bracket epiphysis
  • Physiolysis + interposition (PMMA or fat): earlier intervention allows more correction of angulation and more longitudinal growth
Q5.What are the complications of nonoperative and operative treatment?
  • Nonoperative: structural deformation of the forefoot
  • Nonoperative: incomplete longitudinal growth of the affected bone
  • Nonoperative: clinodactyly at the interphalangeal joint
  • Operative: recurrence of deformity
  • Operative: incomplete correction of deformity
▸ Slide 280 · Juvenile HVFoot and Ankle · 2 questions expand
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. How does juvenile hallux valgus differ from adult hallux valgus?
  2. What is the management of juvenile hallux valgus?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.How does juvenile hallux valgus differ from adult hallux valgus?
  • Usually large IMA, large DMAA +/- HVI, congruent MCPJ
  • Metatarsus primus varus
  • Ligamentous laxity with hypermobile 1st ray
  • Physis not yet closed
  • High recurrence
Q2.What is the management of juvenile hallux valgus?
  • Address ligamentous laxity: TMT arthrodesis after physis closure for a hypermobile 1st ray
  • If physis open: osteotomy at medial cuneiform or wait until closure
  • Double osteotomy: medial cuneiform opening wedge + 1st MT osteotomy +/- Akin
  • Associated with flexible flatfoot and tight TA
▸ Slide 281 · Same as HV as aboveFoot and Ankle · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the management principle for RA foot deformity?
  2. Why does RA foot surgery favour fusion over reconstruction?
  3. What are the fusion positions and procedures used in the RA foot?
  4. What is the pathophysiology of RA foot deformities?
  5. If the IMA is not severe but the HVA is severe, what does that suggest?
  6. How does the X-ray localize a flatfoot deformity?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the management principle for RA foot deformity?
  • Relieve symptoms, preserve function, minimize complications
  • Goal: stable, pain-free plantigrade foot
  • Multidisciplinary: rheumatology, medical, anaesthetics, physio, OT
  • Conservative: physio, shoe wear (large toe box, rockerbottom), metatarsal pads or bars, NSAIDs
Q2.Why does RA foot surgery favour fusion over reconstruction?
  • Primary disease is progressive, so reconstruction has a high chance of recurrence
  • need to bear in mind the risk of complications as a result of osteopenia, reduced vascularity, and immunosuppression
  • Look for other RA complications e.g. C1/2 subluxation, other lower limb arthritis
Q3.What are the fusion positions and procedures used in the RA foot?
  • 1st MTPJ arthrodesis: 20 deg dorsiflexion, 10 deg valgus, neutral rotation
  • Lesser toes: principle is to decompress the joint to allow relocation, while maintaining the MT length cascade (Maestro's cascade)
  • MTPJ: Fowler (proximal P1 excision) or Stainsby (+ flexor-extensor interposition); IPJ: DuVries
  • Midfoot: TN +/- CC fusion; hindfoot: triple fusion
  • Ankle: synovectomy; fusion vs arthroplasty (JBJS 2007 systematic review, 70% satisfaction rate in both groups)
Q4.What is the pathophysiology of RA foot deformities?
  • Stage I: synovitis
  • Stage II: joint erosion and tendon dysfunction
  • Stage III: progressive deformity
  • Forefoot: hallux valgus, claw toe, splay foot
  • Midfoot: rockerbottom + forefoot abduction; hindfoot: PTT insufficiency and disruption of the talocalcaneal interosseous ligament causing hindfoot valgus
Q5.If the IMA is not severe but the HVA is severe, what does that suggest?
  • MCL rupture (usually acute, sesamoid not subluxed)
  • Metatarsus adductus
Q6.How does the X-ray localize a flatfoot deformity?
  • X-ray localization - if at TMTJ, then it is a midfoot driven flatfoot. If at TNJ, is it s hindfoot driven flatfoot
▸ Slide 282 · Hammer toesFoot and Ankle · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the deformity in hammer toes and what causes it?
  2. How are hammer toes treated?
  3. What is the deformity in claw toes and what causes it?
  4. How do you treat claw toes?
  5. What is the function of the lesser toes?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the deformity in hammer toes and what causes it?
  • PIPJ flexed, DIP extended, MTP neutral or extended
  • Due to simultaneous contraction of extrinsic flexors and extensors without the modifying action of intrinsics
  • Weak intrinsics or plantar plate rupture causes MTPJ extension and PIPJ flexion
Q2.How are hammer toes treated?
  • Flexible: tendon transfer (FDL to EDL, EDL lengthening)
  • Fixed: tendon + bone procedure (PIPJ excisional arthroplasty, PIPJ arthrodesis)
Q3.What is the deformity in claw toes and what causes it?
  • Intrinsic minus deformity: MTPJ hyperextended, PIPJ and DIPJ flexed
  • Causes: neurological, synovitis, trauma, compartment syndrome
Q4.How do you treat claw toes?
  • Conservative: plantar padding at MTPJ, orthosis to offload MT heads
  • PIPJ flexible: Girdlestone-Taylor flexor to extensor hood transfer +/- EBD tenotomy
  • PIPJ fixed, MTPJ flexible: distal PP resection + PIPJ fusion (DuVries) + EDL tenotomy
  • PIPJ fixed, MTPJ fixed (not subluxed): DuVries + EDL lengthening, EBD tenotomy, dorsal capsulotomy + collateral release
  • PIPJ fixed, MTPJ fixed and subluxed: Weil osteotomy
Q5.What is the function of the lesser toes?
  • Dissipate forefoot pressure
  • Maintain the arch through the windlass mechanism
▸ Slide 283 · Describe Xray:Foot and Ankle · 8 questions expand
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Q1-Q88 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray finding in this patient.
  2. What is a Haglund deformity and how is it treated?
  3. How is insertional Achilles tendinitis treated?
  4. What is the pathophysiology of paratenonitis and Achilles tendinosis?
  5. How is Achilles tendinosis treated?
  6. How is the parallel pitch line constructed?
  7. What conditions make up the Achilles tendinopathy group?
  8. What is the etiology and presentation of insertional Achilles tendinitis?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray finding in this patient.
  • Spur at the calcaneal tuberosity protruding from the parallel pitch line
  • Consistent with a Haglund deformity
Q2.What is a Haglund deformity and how is it treated?
  • Bony spur at the posterosuperior tubercle of the calcaneum, measured by the parallel pitch line
  • Tenderness 2-3 cm proximal to the Achilles insertion
  • Compresses the bursa on ankle dorsiflexion causing retrocalcaneal bursitis
  • Conservative: NSAID, padding; NOT steroid injection (may cause rupture)
  • Operative: excision of bursa and Haglund lesion
Q3.How is insertional Achilles tendinitis treated?
  • Treat the underlying cause, e.g. removal of a Haglund lesion
  • Conservative: physiotherapy with TA stretching, small heel raise
  • Operative depends on the size of the diseased tendon
  • <50%: debridement +/- reattach tendon to bone
  • >50%: reattach tendon to bone +/- FDL transfer if gap >5 cm
Q4.What is the pathophysiology of paratenonitis and Achilles tendinosis?
  • Overuse with repetitive stress on the Achilles
  • Cook and Purdam continuum model (reactive, reparative, degenerative)
  • Myofibroblasts proliferate and synthesize more collagen III at the paratenon causing scarring and shrinkage
  • Causes ischemic damage to the tendon at the watershed region
Q5.How is Achilles tendinosis treated?
  • Physiotherapy: eccentric training + stretching (Alfredson protocol)
  • Padding + small heel raise
  • Operative: 50% debride; >50% FHL transfer
Q6.How is the parallel pitch line constructed?
  • 1st line: on the calcaneal tuberosity to the anterior calcaneal tubercle
  • 2nd line: parallel to this and touching the posterior lip of the posterior facet
  • A spur protruding from the line indicates a Haglund deformity
Q7.What conditions make up the Achilles tendinopathy group?
  • Haglund deformity + retrocalcaneal bursitis = Haglund syndrome
  • Insertional Achilles tendinitis
  • Achilles tendinosis
Q8.What is the etiology and presentation of insertional Achilles tendinitis?
  • Etiology: retrocalcaneal bursitis, RA/AS with enthesopathy
  • Repeated trauma leads to inflammation then metaplasia of tendon to cartilage/ bone
  • Tenderness at the insertion, may have bony swelling
▸ Slide 284 · Mortons neuroma = interdigital neuromaFoot and Ankle · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a Morton's neuroma?
  2. How does Morton's neuroma present and how is it examined?
  3. What is the differential diagnosis and how do you rule it out?
  4. What are the treatment options for Morton's neuroma?
  5. Describe the dorsal neurectomy and its commonest complication.
  6. What causes Morton's neuroma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a Morton's neuroma?
  • A neuroma caused by compressive neuropathy
  • Most common over the 2nd inter-digital nerve between the 3rd and 4th metatarsal heads
  • Confluence of branches of the lateral and medial plantar nerves
  • Compression by the intermetatarsal ligament
  • More common in women
Q2.How does Morton's neuroma present and how is it examined?
  • 60% pain, 40% numbness; worse with tight shoes and high heels
  • Palpation: plantar tenderness
  • Squeeze test: compressing the forefoot while palpating the web space reproduces symptoms
  • Mulder click: squeeze elicits an occasional bursal click
  • MTPJ drawer test for instability; nerve block test is diagnostic
Q3.What is the differential diagnosis and how do you rule it out?
  • XR and MRI to rule out stress fracture, MTPJ arthritis, metatarsalgia, MTP synovitis and Freiberg disease
  • Ddx for a mass in the sole: bursitis, fibroma over tendon sheath, vascular lesion
Q4.What are the treatment options for Morton's neuroma?
  • Conservative: shoewear, MT pads proximal to the focus of pain (decompress), short-term steroid
  • Surgical: neurectomy + bury end
  • Dorsal approach: less plantar scar
  • Plantar approach: less recurrent neuroma, no need to incise the ligament
Q5.Describe the dorsal neurectomy and its commonest complication.
  • Incise the transverse intermetatarsal ligament
  • Identify the common digital nerve and resect it 2-3 cm proximal to the intermetatarsal ligament, proximal to the small plantar branches
  • Commonest complication: stump neuroma due to inadequate retraction or inadequate resection
Q6.What causes Morton's neuroma?
  • Compressive neuropathy; compression by the intermetatarsal ligament
  • Physiology poorly understood: tension/compression/microtrauma
  • More common in women; associated with tight shoe wear and high heels
▸ Slide 285 · Describe Xray (left): bony spur at anterior distal tibia and dorsal aspect of taFoot and Ankle · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray and the diagnosis.
  2. What causes anterior and posterior ankle impingement?
  3. What is an os trigonum and how is it managed?
  4. What are the indications for ankle arthroscopy?
  5. What are the ankle arthroscopy portals and the structures at risk?
  6. How is ankle arthroscopy set up?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray and the diagnosis.
  • Bony spur at the anterior distal tibia and dorsal aspect of the talar neck
  • Anterior ankle pain on dorsiflexion with limited dorsiflexion: anterior ankle impingement
Q2.What causes anterior and posterior ankle impingement?
  • Anterior: overuse and repeated trauma with osteophyte formation at the anterior ankle
  • Common in athletes playing on grass or turf, footballers and dancers
  • Posterior: overuse and repeated plantarflexion, common in ballet dancers
  • Posterior impingement may cause FHL tendinopathy; X-ray may show an os trigonum
Q3.What is an os trigonum and how is it managed?
  • Accessory ossicle of the separated posterolateral talar tubercle
  • Usually asymptomatic; symptomatic in ballet dancers from repeated extreme plantarflexion
  • May associate with FHL tendinitis
  • Ddx: Shepherd's fracture (fracture of the posterior process of the talus)
  • Conservative treatment; excision if it fails
Q4.What are the indications for ankle arthroscopy?
  • OCD
  • Impingement
  • Removal of loose body
  • Debridement of Haglund lesion
Q5.What are the ankle arthroscopy portals and the structures at risk?
  • Anteromedial: primary portal, between tibialis anterior and saphenous vein
  • Anterolateral: primary portal, lateral to peroneus tertius (superficial peroneal nerve at risk)
  • Posterolateral: 2 cm proximal to lateral malleolus tip, medial to peroneal tendons, lateral to Achilles (sural nerve)
  • Posteromedial: just medial to Achilles (posterior tibial artery and tibial nerve)
  • Anterocentral: between EDC and EHL (DP artery and deep peroneal nerve)
Q6.How is ankle arthroscopy set up?
  • GA, supine, tourniquet
  • Traction strap of the foot and heel
▸ Slide 286 · Tarsal tunnel syndromeFoot and Ankle · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is tarsal tunnel syndrome and what are the tunnel boundaries?
  2. What is the usual presentation and what clinical signs do you look for?
  3. What is the heel pain triad?
  4. How is tarsal tunnel syndrome investigated and treated?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is tarsal tunnel syndrome and what are the tunnel boundaries?
  • Compressive neuropathy of the tibial nerve posterior and inferior to the medial malleolus
  • Superficial: flexor retinaculum
  • Deep: talus, calcaneus, sustentaculum tali
  • Inferior: abductor hallucis
Q2.What is the usual presentation and what clinical signs do you look for?
  • Vague medial foot pain exacerbated by prolonged walking or standing, burning sensation
  • Tinel sign
  • Diminished two-point discrimination
  • Wasting of abductor hallucis (medial plantar nerve) or abductor digiti quinti (lateral plantar nerve)
  • Look for pes planus which further stretches the nerve
Q3.What is the heel pain triad?
  • PTTD
  • Tarsal tunnel syndrome
  • Plantar fasciitis
Q4.How is tarsal tunnel syndrome investigated and treated?
  • Dx: NCV better than EMG; MRI for space-occupying lesion
  • Conservative: NSAID, vitamin B6, tricyclic antidepressant, physio, massage, desensitization for 3-6m
  • Surgical: nerve release +/- excision of SOL
  • Release investing fascia, flexor retinaculum, and superficial and deep fascia of abductor hallucis
▸ Slide 287 · Anterior tarsal tunnel syndromeFoot and Ankle · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  2. What are the symptoms of anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  3. Describe the course and branches of the deep peroneal nerve at the ankle.
  4. How is anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome treated?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Compressive neuropathy of the deep peroneal nerve
  • Tunnel formed by the Y-shaped inferior extensor retinaculum
  • Superficial boundary: inferior extensor retinaculum
  • Deep boundary: fascia overlying the talus and navicular
  • Contents: deep peroneal nerve and branches, EHL, EDL, dorsalis pedis artery
Q2.What are the symptoms of anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Burning pain and paresthesias or vague dorsal foot pain
  • Worse at night as the ankle assumes a plantarflexed posture
Q3.Describe the course and branches of the deep peroneal nerve at the ankle.
  • Passes medial to EHL proximal to the ankle, then laterally between EHL and EDC
  • Divides into lateral motor and medial sensory branches within the tunnel
  • Accompanied by the dorsalis pedis artery
Q4.How is anterior tarsal tunnel syndrome treated?
  • Conservative: NSAID, night splints, footwear
  • Surgical release: incise the inferior extensor retinaculum
  • Protect the DP artery and release both branches of the nerve
  • Remove SOL and repair the capsule to protect the nerve from bleeding bone
▸ Slide 288 · Hallux rigidusFoot and Ankle · 7 questions expand
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Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray and clinical findings.
  2. What is the Coughlin staging of hallux rigidus?
  3. What are the conservative and joint-preserving options?
  4. What are the joint-sacrificing options and their problems?
  5. Why is some valgus needed in fusion, and what is the evidence for fusion vs replacement?
  6. What is the pathophysiology of hallux rigidus?
  7. What are the history and examination findings in hallux rigidus?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray and clinical findings.
  • Osteophytes at the dorsal side of the 1st MTPJ
  • Clinically limited dorsiflexion: hallux rigidus
Q2.What is the Coughlin staging of hallux rigidus?
  • 1: mild pain with ROM
  • 2: moderate pain with ROM
  • 3: stiffness + pain with end ROM
  • 4: stiffness + pain through ROM
  • Grades 1-2: osteophyte; grades 3-4: joint space narrowing
Q3.What are the conservative and joint-preserving options?
  • Conservative: NSAID, Morton's extension stiff foot plate limiting toe dorsiflexion, high box/rocker bottom shoes
  • Arthroscopic debridement/synovectomy for grades I-II
  • Cheilectomy (also remove 25% of dorsal MT head) for grades I-II
  • Dorsal closing wedge osteotomy for grades II-III
Q4.What are the joint-sacrificing options and their problems?
  • Fusion
  • Interpositional arthroplasty
  • Keller excision arthroplasty - problem is cock up deformity
  • Arthroplasty
Q5.Why is some valgus needed in fusion, and what is the evidence for fusion vs replacement?
  • Valgus lessens the chance of IPJ arthritis
  • JBJS Rev 2017 Stevens systematic review: arthrodesis is superior for clinical outcome and pain with fewer complications and revisions
  • 20.9% loosening rate in the replacement group
Q6.What is the pathophysiology of hallux rigidus?
  • MT primus elevatus
  • Degenerative change at the 1st MTPJ resulting in limited dorsiflexion
Q7.What are the history and examination findings in hallux rigidus?
  • Hx: pain on push off or forced dorsiflexion of the great toe
  • Shoe irritation due to dorsal osteophytes compressing the medial dorsal cutaneous nerve (MDCN); metatarsalgia; bunion
  • PE: swelling, dorsal bunion, antalgic supinated gait, grind test
  • Grading depends on pain upon ROM, osteophyte size and joint space
▸ Slide 289 · Freiberg's diseaseFoot and Ankle · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is Freiberg's disease?
  2. How does Freiberg's disease present?
  3. What is Smillie's classification?
  4. What are the operative options for Freiberg's disease?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is Freiberg's disease?
  • Infarction and fracture of a metatarsal head
  • Common in female adolescents and athletes
  • Most commonly the second MT
  • Thought due to microtrauma, stress overload, osteonecrosis
Q2.How does Freiberg's disease present?
  • Foot dorsum pain and swelling over the 2nd MTPJ on weight bearing
  • Diagnosis is by X-ray and graded with Smillie's classification
Q3.What is Smillie's classification?
  • 1: normal X-ray, abnormal MRI (subchondral fracture)
  • 2: collapse on the dorsal side of the articular surface
  • 3: further collapse with bony projections on the medial and lateral head
  • 4: collapse involving the whole head distorting anatomy
  • 5: arthritic; grades 4-5 impossible to reconstruct
Q4.What are the operative options for Freiberg's disease?
  • Goal: pain relief + pressure relief
  • Non-operative: activities modification, rest, NSAID, short leg cast, MT pad
  • Early/salvageable: arthrotomy for loose body, dorsal closing wedge osteotomy, Shortening osteotomy to unload joint, Bone graft/ drilling
  • Late/non-salvageable: DuVries arthroplasty (partial MT head resection + capsular interposition), excisional arthroplasty
▸ Slide 290 · Iselin disease is a benign and self-limiting condition, defined as apophysitis oFoot and Ankle · 2 questions expand
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slide 290
Question list
Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is Iselin disease?
  2. How would you counsel a patient with Iselin disease?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is Iselin disease?
  • Apophysitis of the base of the 5th metatarsal
  • A benign and self-limiting condition
Q2.How would you counsel a patient with Iselin disease?
  • Reassure the patient: the condition is benign
  • The condition is self-limiting
▸ Slide 291 · Bunionette deformityFoot and Ankle · 3 questions 1 check expand
slide 291
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the Coughlin classification of bunionette deformity?
  2. How does a bunionette present?
  3. How is a bunionette treated?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the Coughlin classification of bunionette deformity?
  • Type I: large MT head or lateral exostosis
  • Type II: congenital bowing with a normal 4-5 IMA
  • Type III: 4-5 IMA >12 deg
Q2.How does a bunionette present?
  • Cosmesis
  • Pain from prominence, lateral bunion, plantar callosity
  • Check shoewear
Q3.How is a bunionette treated?
  • Nonoperative first - 70-90% success (shoewear modification, analgesics, callosity shaving)
  • Surgery if nonoperative treatment fails
  • Type I: lateral condylectomy
  • IMA <12: distal MT osteotomy
  • IMA >12: proximal MT osteotomy
Fact check

Type III bunionette is defined as a 4-5 intermetatarsal angle >12 deg — conflates the classification with a surgical threshold — Coughlin type III is simply an increased 4-5 IMA; abnormal is commonly cited as >8-10 deg, while >12 deg is used to select a proximal osteotomy — medium confidence — source

▸ Slide 292 · Harris axial viewFoot and Ankle · 3 questions expand
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slide 292
Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. How is the Harris axial view taken and what does it show?
  2. How is the Canale view taken?
  3. How is the Broden view taken?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.How is the Harris axial view taken and what does it show?
  • Foot in dorsiflexion with the beam angled 45 deg cephalad
  • Visualizes the joint surface, loss of height, increasing width and angulation of the tuberosity fragment (usually varus)
Q2.How is the Canale view taken?
  • Ankle in maximal equinus
  • Foot on the cassette pronated 15 deg
  • X-ray beam 15 deg cephalad
Q3.How is the Broden view taken?
  • Patient supine, cassette under the leg and ankle
  • Foot in neutral flexion with the leg internally rotated 15 deg (mortise)
  • X-ray centred over the lateral malleolus
  • Beam directed toward the head at 40, 30, 20 and 10 deg
▸ Slide 293 · Proper shoe wearFoot and Ankle · 4 questions expand
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slide 293
Question list
Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the three key features of proper shoe wear?
  2. What does rotational rigidity in a shoe protect?
  3. What does heel counter stability provide?
  4. What does flexion stability in a shoe protect?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the three key features of proper shoe wear?
  • Rotational rigidity (protects the flatfoot)
  • Heel counter stability
  • Flexion stability (protects the forefoot)
Q2.What does rotational rigidity in a shoe protect?
  • It protects the flatfoot
Q3.What does heel counter stability provide?
  • Heel counter stability is one of the three key features of proper shoe wear
  • The notes do not specify the structure it protects
Q4.What does flexion stability in a shoe protect?
  • It protects the forefoot
▸ Slide 294 · Subluxation of peroneal tendonFoot and Ankle · 13 questions expand
slide 294
Question list
Q1-Q1313 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the Oden classification of superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) injury.
  2. Which Oden grade is most common and what is its pathoanatomy?
  3. What is the pathoanatomy of an Oden grade 2 lesion?
  4. What is the pathoanatomy of an Oden grade 3 lesion?
  5. What is the pathoanatomy of an Oden grade 4 lesion?
  6. What other classifications are used for peroneal tendon pathology?
  7. Describe the anatomy of the peroneal tendon groove.
  8. How do you assess suspected peroneal tendon subluxation?
  9. How is the apprehension test for peroneal tendon subluxation performed?
  10. What imaging is used for peroneal tendon subluxation?
  11. How is acute peroneal tendon subluxation managed nonoperatively?
  12. What is the operative management of acute peroneal tendon subluxation?
  13. How is chronic or recurrent peroneal tendon dislocation managed?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the Oden classification of superior peroneal retinaculum (SPR) injury.
  • Grade 1: SPR elevated off the fibula, tendons lie between bone and periosteum (most common, >50%)
  • Grade 2: fibrocartilaginous ridge avulses with the retinaculum; tendons displaced beneath the ridge
  • Grade 3: avulsion of a small cortical osseous fragment from the fibular insertion; tendons dislocate beneath the fragment
  • Grade 4 (rarest): complete avulsion/rupture of the SPR; tendons lie external and superficial to the retinaculum
Q2.Which Oden grade is most common and what is its pathoanatomy?
  • Grade 1, >50% of cases
  • SPR elevated off the fibula
  • Tendons come to lie between the bone and the periosteum
Q3.What is the pathoanatomy of an Oden grade 2 lesion?
  • The fibrocartilaginous ridge behind the lateral insertion of the SPR avulses together with the retinaculum
  • The peroneal tendons are displaced beneath the ridge
Q4.What is the pathoanatomy of an Oden grade 3 lesion?
  • Avulsion of a small cortical osseous fragment from the fibular insertion
  • The tendons dislocate beneath the fibular fragment
Q5.What is the pathoanatomy of an Oden grade 4 lesion?
  • The rarest type of lesion
  • Complete avulsion or rupture of the superior peroneal retinaculum
  • Tendons lie external and superficial to the retinaculum
Q6.What other classifications are used for peroneal tendon pathology?
  • Raikin for intrasubstance subluxation
  • Redfern for peroneal tendon tear (both okay/partial tear, one torn, both torn; A not retracted, B retracted)
Q7.Describe the anatomy of the peroneal tendon groove.
  • Peroneal tendon sheath splits at the level of the peroneal tubercle
  • Groove over the posterolateral aspect of the fibula
  • Bounded by the superior peroneal retinaculum, fibrocartilaginous ridge and Talus/ calcaneum
Q8.How do you assess suspected peroneal tendon subluxation?
  • History: timing, recurrence
  • Apprehension test (resisted dorsiflexion and eversion, or plantarflexion + inversion to dorsiflexion + eversion)
  • Check for voluntary subluxation and any hindfoot varus
Q9.How is the apprehension test for peroneal tendon subluxation performed?
  • Resisted dorsiflexion and eversion, or
  • Move the ankle from plantarflexion + inversion to dorsiflexion + eversion
Q10.What imaging is used for peroneal tendon subluxation?
  • XR: look for the fleck sign
  • Dynamic USG
  • CT
  • MRI
Q11.How is acute peroneal tendon subluxation managed nonoperatively?
  • Short leg cast and protected weight bearing for 6 weeks
Q12.What is the operative management of acute peroneal tendon subluxation?
  • Acute repair of the superior peroneal retinaculum
  • Deepening of the fibular groove
Q13.How is chronic or recurrent peroneal tendon dislocation managed?
  • Groove deepening with soft tissue transfer and/or osteotomy
▸ Slide 295 · Tarsal tunnel syndromeFoot and Ankle · 11 questions expand
slide 295
Question list
Q1-Q1111 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  2. Describe the anatomy and contents of the tarsal tunnel.
  3. Where does the tarsal tunnel begin and end?
  4. What are the causes of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  5. What is the differential diagnosis of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  6. How does tarsal tunnel syndrome present?
  7. What are the signs of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  8. What is the workup of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  9. What is the conservative treatment of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  10. What are the indications and options for surgery in tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  11. What is Baxter's nerve?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Compressive neuropathy of the tibial nerve or its terminal branches (medial and lateral plantar nerves) in the tarsal canal
  • Impingement within the fibro-osseous tunnel or as it passes into the abductor hallucis muscle
Q2.Describe the anatomy and contents of the tarsal tunnel.
  • Roof: flexor retinaculum (laciniate ligament)
  • Floor (medial): superior calcaneus, medial wall of talus, distal-medial tibia
  • Inferior: abductor hallucis
  • Contents: TibP, FDL, FHL, tibial nerve, posterior tibial A&V
Q3.Where does the tarsal tunnel begin and end?
  • Begins a few cm proximal to the tip of the medial malleolus, where the crural fascia condenses to form the unyielding roof - the flexor retinaculum (laciniate ligament)
  • Ends where the medial and lateral plantar nerves enter or pass deep to the abductor hallucis
Q4.What are the causes of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Space-occupying lesion: lipoma, nerve sheath tumour, ganglion, varicose vein, bony prominence, exostosis
  • Valgus hindfoot
Q5.What is the differential diagnosis of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Peripheral neuropathy
  • HMSN
  • S1 radiculopathy
  • Plantar fasciitis
  • Lateral plantar nerve compression neuropathy
  • Heel pad atrophy/hypermobility
Q6.How does tarsal tunnel syndrome present?
  • Vague foot pain
  • Commonly confused with plantar fasciitis
Q7.What are the signs of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Atrophy of intrinsics
  • Numbness in the sole
  • Tinel sign posterior to the medial malleolus
  • Aggregated numbness upon eversion and dorsiflexion
Q8.What is the workup of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • XR and MRI
  • NCT/EMG: latency to abdH and abdDM, slow velocity, decreased amplitude
Q9.What is the conservative treatment of tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Steroid injection
  • PT for stretching
  • Orthosis in plantarflexion + varus
Q10.What are the indications and options for surgery in tarsal tunnel syndrome?
  • Indications: space-occupying lesion or failed conservative treatment
  • Decompression - open or arthroscopic
Q11.What is Baxter's nerve?
  • First branch of the lateral plantar nerve
  • Implicated as one of the cause of heel pain, which can be similar to plantar fasciitis
  • Provides motor innervation for the abductor digiti minimi