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Local revision copy · not clinical advice

Statistics

Topic 06 · slides 100–155 · 56 slides · 336 questions
56 slides
▸ Slide 100 · statisticsStatistics · 2 questions expand
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slide 100
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What statistics topic is covered on this slide?
  2. What are the key statistical concepts tested in orthopaedic exams?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What statistics topic is covered on this slide?
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
Q2.What are the key statistical concepts tested in orthopaedic exams?
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
▸ Slide 101 · Wilsons criteria for screening programStatistics · 7 questions 1 check expand
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Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are **Wilson's criteria** for a screening program?
  2. What features should the screening test and the screened population have?
  3. Give two examples of screening programmes discussed.
  4. What is the incidence of DDH and how do the Barlow/Ortolani test and ultrasound compare?
  5. What did the 2009 International Hip Dysplasia Institute study show?
  6. Does DDH screening fulfil **Wilson's criteria**?
  7. Describe the Hong Kong scoliosis screening programme.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are Wilson's criteria for a screening program?
  • Condition: an important health problem; natural history understood; recognisable latent or early symptomatic stage
  • Test: easy to perform and interpret, acceptable, accurate, reliable, sensitive and specific
  • Treatment: acceptable treatment recognised, more effective if started early, policy on who should be treated
  • Diagnosis and treatment should be cost effective; case-findings should be a continuous process
Q2.What features should the screening test and the screened population have?
  • Test: acceptable and tolerated by patients; high sensitivity to detect disease before the critical point; high specificity to reduce false positives; cost effective
  • Population: disease should have high prevalence to allow screening; accepted and effective treatment is available; treatment and further evaluation acceptable to the patient
  • Disease: significant impact on community; recognisable latent or early symptomatic phase; natural history understood
Q3.Give two examples of screening programmes discussed.
  • DDH screening
  • Scoliosis screening in Hong Kong (P5, F1 and F3)
Q4.What is the incidence of DDH and how do the Barlow/Ortolani test and ultrasound compare?
  • DDH incidence 1 in 1000
  • B and O test: sensitivity 67%, specificity 96%
  • Ultrasound: sensitivity 89%, specificity 97%, PPV 62%
Q5.What did the 2009 International Hip Dysplasia Institute study show?
  • Compared no screening, selective screening and universal screening
  • Selective screening most cost effective
Q6.Does DDH screening fulfil Wilson's criteria?
  • Fulfils most criteria
  • BUT there is no universal agreement on who should receive treatment
  • Cost of the screening program versus the full cost of delayed detection has not been fully established
Q7.Describe the Hong Kong scoliosis screening programme.
  • 3-tier system at P5, F1 and F3
  • FBT sensitivity 84%; ATR sensitivity 83% (>=15 degrees refers to specialist hospital; 5-14 degrees goes to Moire topography)
  • Moire topography >=2 lines leads to XR; Cobb >20 degrees refers to specialist hospital
  • Overall sensitivity 88%
Fact check

Selective screening is the most cost-effective DDH screening strategy (International Hip Dysplasia Institute 2009 JBJS) — imprecise — The 2009 JBJS study was a decision analysis of hip outcomes (not costs) that favoured physical examination for all with selective ultrasonography; a later systematic review found screening cost evidence inconclusive/heterogeneous — medium confidence — source

▸ Slide 102 · Kaplan meier curveStatistics · 6 questions 1 check expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a Kaplan-Meier curve?
  2. What is censoring in a Kaplan-Meier analysis?
  3. How are survival probabilities calculated in a Kaplan-Meier curve?
  4. What is the difference between a life table and a Kaplan-Meier curve?
  5. How do you compare survival between studies?
  6. Define conditional survival, median survival time and the limitations of KM curves.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a Kaplan-Meier curve?
  • Non-parametric estimate of the survival function
  • Visual representation of the cumulative probability of an event at a specific time (a type of cohort study with outcome plotted over time)
  • Commonly used in joint registry data for implant survivorship; X axis is time, Y axis is cumulative survival probability
  • The event is represented by a downward step in the curve
Q2.What is censoring in a Kaplan-Meier analysis?
  • Subjects who drop out of the study for reasons other than failure
  • Right censored: items that have not yet failed
  • Left censored: items that failed before the start of the test
  • Interval censored: items that have failed but the interval is uncertain
Q3.How are survival probabilities calculated in a Kaplan-Meier curve?
  • For each interval, survival = number of patients surviving / number at risk
  • Censored patients are not included in the denominator
  • Successive conditional probabilities are multiplied to give the cumulative probability
  • Large vertical step down = many deaths/failures; large horizontal step = few deaths
Q4.What is the difference between a life table and a Kaplan-Meier curve?
  • Life table divides time into regular intervals and calculates survival at each interval (actuarial method)
  • Kaplan-Meier recalculates the survival rate each time a failure occurs (product limit method)
Q5.How do you compare survival between studies?
  • Need 95% confidence interval (1.96 SD from the mean)
  • Upper line represents censored data if they survived; lower line assumes all censored data died
  • If CI overlap >25%, not statistically significant; use the Cox proportional hazard test or log rank test
  • CI widens on the right side as population size decreases
Q6.Define conditional survival, median survival time and the limitations of KM curves.
  • Conditional survival probability: chance of surviving a specific time frame between failures
  • Unconditional survival probability: chance of surviving from the beginning of the study
  • Median survival time: time until 50% of the population survive
  • Do not extrapolate beyond the defined time frame, and only specific hard endpoints should be used
Fact check

If 95% confidence intervals overlap by more than 25%, the difference is not statistically significant — misleading — Overlapping confidence intervals do not determine significance; formal testing (log-rank/Cox for survival data, or a CI for the difference) is required. The >25% overlap rule is not a standard statistical criterion — source

▸ Slide 103 · Sensitivity: probability of the test result being positive in patients with the Statistics · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Define sensitivity and specificity.
  2. Define false positive rate, false negative rate and accuracy.
  3. What are the positive and negative likelihood ratios?
  4. What are PPV and NPV and how are they affected by prevalence?
  5. What is an ROC curve?
  6. How do you choose a cut-off for a screening versus a confirmation test?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Define sensitivity and specificity.
  • Sensitivity: probability of a positive test in patients with the disease (true positive / disease positive)
  • Specificity: probability of a negative test in patients without the disease (true negative / disease negative)
Q2.Define false positive rate, false negative rate and accuracy.
  • False positive rate = 1 - specificity
  • False negative rate = 1 - sensitivity
  • Accuracy: probability of correct identification of a disease = (true positive + true negative) / total number
Q3.What are the positive and negative likelihood ratios?
  • Positive LR = sensitivity / (1 - specificity)
  • Negative LR = (1 - sensitivity) / specificity
  • LR is the likelihood of correctly predicting disease versus the probability of incorrectly predicting it
Q4.What are PPV and NPV and how are they affected by prevalence?
  • PPV: probability of disease when the test is positive (true positive / test positive)
  • NPV: probability of no disease when the test is negative (true negative / test negative)
  • Sensitivity and specificity are intrinsic to the test itself, but PPV/NPV change with prevalence
  • prevalence affects the pretest probability
  • PPV is higher if prevalence is higher
Q5.What is an ROC curve?
  • Plot of the true positive rate against the false positive rate (sensitivity / 1 - specificity) at different cut-off points
  • Shows the tradeoff between sensitivity and specificity with different cut off values: any increase in sensitivity is accompanied by a decrease in specificity
  • Area 0.5 = useless test (complete overlap); 1.0 = perfect test (no overlap)
  • AUC 0.5-0.7 marginally useful tests, 0.7-0.9 good, >0.9 excellent
Q6.How do you choose a cut-off for a screening versus a confirmation test?
  • Screening test: choose high sensitivity (right side of the curve)
  • Confirmation test: choose high specificity (left side of the curve)
▸ Slide 104Statistics · 3 questions expand
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Question list
Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What distinguishes the good test from the bad test on the upper ROC curves?
  2. What do the axes of these ROC curves represent?
  3. Which three test scenarios are marked at cut-offs on the lower ROC curve?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What distinguishes the good test from the bad test on the upper ROC curves?
  • Good test: curve rises steeply towards the top-left corner
  • Bad test: curve lies close to the diagonal (close to no better than chance)
Q2.What do the axes of these ROC curves represent?
  • X axis: 1 - specificity (false positive rate)
  • Y axis: sensitivity (true positive rate)
Q3.Which three test scenarios are marked at cut-offs on the lower ROC curve?
  • Confirmation test, balanced test and screening test
▸ Slide 105 · Interpretation of result in cohortStatistics · 3 questions expand
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Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What cohort study example is used to interpret results?
  2. What are the exposure, outcome and population in this study?
  3. How is a cohort study result interpreted?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What cohort study example is used to interpret results?
  • A study on the risk of DVT after given enoxaparin in TKR patients
  • The question asked is: how to interpret the result?
Q2.What are the exposure, outcome and population in this study?
  • Exposure: enoxaparin
  • Outcome: DVT
  • Population: TKR patients
Q3.How is a cohort study result interpreted?
  • List the risk ratio, risk difference, odds ratio and NNT
▸ Slide 106 · Control group risk: 3/45 = 0.067Statistics · 7 questions expand
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Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Given a control risk of 3/45 and experimental risk of 1/50, calculate the risk difference and NNT.
  2. Calculate the relative risk from these data and state when it can be used.
  3. Calculate the odds ratio and state when odds can be calculated.
  4. Can causality be established from these results?
  5. List the Bradford Hill criteria.
  6. How is a chi-squared test calculated?
  7. Calculate the expected values for the male/female 2x2 example.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Given a control risk of 3/45 and experimental risk of 1/50, calculate the risk difference and NNT.
  • 2x2 table, outcome DVT: exposure enoxaparin +ve 1 DVT+ / 49 DVT- / 50; exposure -ve 3 DVT+ / 42 DVT- / 45; column totals 4 DVT+ / 91 DVT-
  • Control group risk 3/45 = 0.067; experimental group risk 1/50 = 0.02
  • Risk difference (absolute risk reduction) = 0.067 - 0.02 = 0.047
  • NNT = 1/ARR = 1/0.047 = 21.3
Q2.Calculate the relative risk from these data and state when it can be used.
  • RR = 0.02/0.067 = 0.3
  • Risk of developing the disease with the exposure compared with the risk without the exposure
  • Relative risk can be calculated in a cohort study
Q3.Calculate the odds ratio and state when odds can be calculated.
  • Odds in exposed group 1/49 = 0.02; odds in unexposed group 3/42 = 0.07
  • Odds ratio = 0.29
  • Odds can only be calculated in a case control study
Q4.Can causality be established from these results?
  • No - these measures cannot establish causality
  • Causality is established through the Bradford Hill criteria
Q5.List the Bradford Hill criteria.
  • Strength (effect size), consistency (reproducibility), specificity
  • Temporality, biological gradient (dose-response), plausibility, coherence
  • Experiment, analogy
Q6.How is a chi-squared test calculated?
  • Chi2 = sum of (observed - expected)^2 / expected
  • Expected value = (row sum x column sum) / total
Q7.Calculate the expected values for the male/female 2x2 example.
  • Disease male = 10x14/21 = 6.67; disease female = 10x7/21 = 3.33
  • Control male = 14x11/21 = 7.33; control female = 7x11/21 = 3.67
  • Expected value = (row sum x column sum) / total number
▸ Slide 107 · What is a hypothesis?Statistics · 3 questions expand
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Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a hypothesis?
  2. What is a null hypothesis?
  3. What are type 1 and 2 errors?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a hypothesis?
  • A proposition that serves as a starting point for further investigation
Q2.What is a null hypothesis?
  • A primary assumption that any differences between groups occurred purely by chance
Q3.What are type 1 and 2 errors?
  • Type 1 (alpha) error: rejecting the null hypothesis when it is true - no true difference but a difference is found
  • Type 2 (beta) error: failing to reject a false null hypothesis - a true difference exists but is not detected
▸ Slide 108 · How do you conduct a RCT?Statistics · 14 questions expand
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Q1-Q1414 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. How do you conduct a randomised controlled trial?
  2. What types of analysis can be used for deviation from the study protocol?
  3. What factors determine sample size in a power analysis?
  4. Define power and power analysis.
  5. What are the steps of a power analysis?
  6. What is effect size?
  7. What is bias and how is it reduced?
  8. What is confounding and how does randomisation address it?
  9. What types of randomisation are used and what are their drawbacks?
  10. List the types of bias in clinical research.
  11. Differentiate type 1 and type 2 errors and how they are reduced.
  12. What is a confidence interval and how is it calculated?
  13. What is a p value?
  14. What is the Bonferroni correction and what is its drawback?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.How do you conduct a randomised controlled trial?
  • Identify the problem, define the research question, set null and alternate hypotheses
  • Literature review using the PICO principle (patients, intervention, comparison, outcome) to identify gaps; ethics committee
  • Study design (PROSD): population (control and treatment groups, inclusion/exclusion criteria), methodology (randomisation/blinding/stratification for confounding), outcome measures, sample size by power analysis
  • Register and conduct the trial, recruit patients, collect and analyse data, interpret and publish
Q2.What types of analysis can be used for deviation from the study protocol?
  • Intention to treat
  • Per protocol
  • As treated
Q3.What factors determine sample size in a power analysis?
  • Power of study 0.8 and P value 0.05 (predetermined)
  • Variability of the result (standard deviation)
  • Chosen clinically important difference in the primary outcome
Q4.Define power and power analysis.
  • Power = the ability of a study to detect a difference between 2 interventions if one in fact exists = 1 - beta (1 - type II error)
  • Power analysis = the process of determining the sample size needed to reject the null hypothesis
  • Conventional power 80% = 80% chance of finding a statistical difference if there is one (probability of a type II error is <20%)
  • Cut-off determined from: pilot study, literature research, minimum clinically important difference (MCID)
Q5.What are the steps of a power analysis?
  • Set the smallest meaningful outcome difference and effect size
  • Set alpha and beta (0.05 / 80%)
  • Find the variance
Q6.What is effect size?
  • The magnitude of the difference in the means of the control and experimental groups
  • Expressed with respect to the pooled standard deviation
Q7.What is bias and how is it reduced?
  • A systematic error, conscious or unconscious, that leads to a false representation of the true state of affairs
  • Reduced by randomisation, masking/blinding and meticulous attention to the study protocol
Q8.What is confounding and how does randomisation address it?
  • Confounding occurs when factors not under study affect the results
  • Randomisation reduces it by distributing independent variables equally among the treatment arms
Q9.What types of randomisation are used and what are their drawbacks?
  • Simple (by computer): easy to implement but may result in unequal groups
  • Stratified: separate randomisation procedures within subgroups defined according to the predefined characteristics (e.g. smoking)
  • Block: addresses imbalance but the executer can predict the next assignment
Q10.List the types of bias in clinical research.
  • Questions bias (study design), sampling bias (inclusion/exclusion criteria)
  • Selection bias (randomisation), information bias (recall, workup, interview)
  • Windowing (analysis), publication bias
Q11.Differentiate type 1 and type 2 errors and how they are reduced.
  • Type 1 (alpha): no true difference but a difference is found - falsely rejecting the null hypothesis; reduce by decreasing the p value (Bonferroni correction)
  • Type 2 (beta): a true difference exists but is not detected - falsely accepting the null hypothesis
  • Reduce type 2 error by increasing p value, sample size, effect size or outcome variability
Q12.What is a confidence interval and how is it calculated?
  • The range in which the true effect lies on either side of the mean; refers to the uncertainty of the study
  • 95% CI = mean +/- 1.96 SD
  • 99% CI = mean +/- 2.58 SD
Q13.What is a p value?
  • The probability of an observed difference occurring by chance; p < 0.05 is taken as statistically significant
Q14.What is the Bonferroni correction and what is its drawback?
  • A post-hoc statistical correction made to P values when several dependent or independent statistical tests are performed simultaneously on a single data set
  • May increase a type 2 error
▸ Slide 109 · What is the level of study of a RCT?Statistics · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What determines the level of study of a randomised controlled trial?
  2. Outline the levels of evidence.
  3. What are the types of study designs?
  4. What is the difference between a cohort and a case control study?
  5. What is the difference between a systematic review and a meta-analysis?
  6. What is heterogeneity and how is it measured?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What determines the level of study of a randomised controlled trial?
  • Depends on the quality of the RCT: confidence interval, percentage of follow-up, blinding
  • Can be level 1 or 2
Q2.Outline the levels of evidence.
  • Level 1: RCT with narrow CI; systematic review of RCTs with homogeneous findings
  • Level 2: cohort study, RCT with <80% follow-up; systematic review of cohort studies with homogeneous findings
  • Level 3: case control study; systematic review of case control studies
  • Level 4: case series; Level 5: expert opinion
Q3.What are the types of study designs?
  • Descriptive: cross sectional, case reports, correlational studies
  • Analytical: cohort, case control, RCT, survival analysis
Q4.What is the difference between a cohort and a case control study?
  • Cohort study: observational design where patients are selected on the basis of an exposure variable
  • Case control study: observational design where patients are selected on the basis of an outcome variable
Q5.What is the difference between a systematic review and a meta-analysis?
  • Systematic review: combines the information of several studies on the same topic
  • Meta-analysis: collects the results of several studies and analyses them again with a statistical technique
  • Meta-analysis is a type of systematic review
Q6.What is heterogeneity and how is it measured?
  • Variation between the studies' design (clinical, methodology)
  • Chi-squared heterogeneity test (Q test): large value = heterogeneity
  • I2: large value = heterogeneity
▸ Slide 110 · What types of data you know?Statistics · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What types of data do you know?
  2. What is a normal (parametric) distribution?
  3. How do you formally test for normality and homogeneity of variance?
  4. How can non-parametric data be transformed to parametric?
  5. How do you measure variability?
  6. What are the measures of central tendency?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What types of data do you know?
  • Categorical: nominal (e.g. eye colour) or ordinal (e.g. mild/moderate/severe)
  • Numerical: discrete or continuous
Q2.What is a normal (parametric) distribution?
  • Continuous data that is symmetrical
  • Mean = median = mode
  • 1SD = 68%, 2SD = 95%, 3SD = 99.7%
Q3.How do you formally test for normality and homogeneity of variance?
  • Kolmogorov-Smirnov test or Shapiro-Wilki's test for normality
  • Levene's test for homogeneity of variance
Q4.How can non-parametric data be transformed to parametric?
  • How to transform nonparametric to parametric?
  • Logarithm
  • Square
  • Square root
Q5.How do you measure variability?
  • Variance = sum of squares of difference about the mean / number of subjects
  • SD = square root of variance
  • Standard error = SD / square root of n
Q6.What are the measures of central tendency?
  • Mean: sum of all observations divided by number of subjects
  • Median: central value of the data
  • Mode: most frequent value
▸ Slide 111 · Statistical inference used to test specific hypothesis about associations or dStatistics · 1 question expand
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Q1-Q11 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is statistical inference used for?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is statistical inference used for?
  • Used to test specific hypotheses about associations or differences among groups of subjects
  • Applied to sample data
▸ Slide 112 · Forrest plot numerical and graphical representation of a metanalysisStatistics · 8 questions expand
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Q1-Q88 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a forest plot?
  2. What is a meta-analysis and how does it differ from a systematic review?
  3. What information is shown in the columns of a forest plot?
  4. What do the symbols in a forest plot represent?
  5. How is heterogeneity assessed and graded in a meta-analysis?
  6. What do 'fixed' and 'M-H' mean and how is heterogeneity managed?
  7. What is heterogeneity per the lecture definition?
  8. What is meta-regression and what is it used for?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a forest plot?
  • Numerical and graphical representation of a meta-analysis
  • Displays individual study results together with the combined overall effect
Q2.What is a meta-analysis and how does it differ from a systematic review?
  • Meta-analysis = quantitative systematic review combining results of relevant studies to produce an estimation of the overall effect of interest
  • Systematic review = overview of primary studies using explicit and reproducible methods
Q3.What information is shown in the columns of a forest plot?
  • 1st column: name of study in alphabetical order
  • 2nd-5th columns: incidence of event in control and experimental group
  • 6th column: weight - reflects precision of the study (size and CI)
  • 7th column: RR and CI interval
Q4.What do the symbols in a forest plot represent?
  • Square = weight of study
  • Horizontal line = confidence interval
  • Central line = no-effect line; if the CI crosses it the result is not statistically significant
  • Diamond at the bottom = combined effect of the studies
Q5.How is heterogeneity assessed and graded in a meta-analysis?
  • Chi-squared heterogeneity test (Q test) or I2
  • I2 <50 = low, 50-75% = moderate, >75% = high heterogeneity
  • I2 = the proportion of variation that is due to heterogeneity rather than chance
  • p<0.05 rejects the null hypothesis of no statistical heterogeneity
Q6.What do 'fixed' and 'M-H' mean and how is heterogeneity managed?
  • Mantel-Haenszel (M-H) test used to combine studies (Review Manager, Cochrane Library)
  • Fixed-effects model: one true effect underlies all studies
  • Random-effects model: normal distribution of true effect sizes; mean and variance estimated
  • Management: subgroup analysis, random-effects model (may report plot without combined estimate), meta-regression for confounders
Q7.What is heterogeneity per the lecture definition?
  • Variability in patient characteristics within each study
Q8.What is meta-regression and what is it used for?
  • An extension of subgroup analysis allowing the effects of multiple factors to be investigated simultaneously
  • Used to look for confounders
  • Similar to simple regression: an outcome variable predicted from one or more independent variables
▸ Slide 113 · Inverted funnel plotStatistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is an inverted funnel plot?
  2. What is an inverted funnel plot used for?
  3. What are the axes and reference lines of an inverted funnel plot?
  4. How should studies be distributed and what does asymmetry indicate?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is an inverted funnel plot?
  • Scatter plot of the intervention effect estimates from individual studies
  • Plotted against some measure of each study's size or precision
Q2.What is an inverted funnel plot used for?
  • Helps detect publication bias in a meta-analysis
  • Small size study with lower methodology quality tends to overestimate true effect
Q3.What are the axes and reference lines of an inverted funnel plot?
  • Y axis: precision of study (standard error, or standard deviation/square of sample size)
  • X axis: effect of treatment (relative risk)
  • Vertical dotted line: estimated combined RR of the meta-analysis
  • Diagonal dotted lines form the funnel
Q4.How should studies be distributed and what does asymmetry indicate?
  • Upper dots: larger sample size/more precise, lie closer to the vertical dotted line
  • Lower dots: smaller/less precise studies, more scattered and symmetrically distributed
  • Asymmetry suggests publication bias, or small low-quality studies overestimating the true effect
▸ Slide 114 · Outcome measurementStatistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. The Harris hip score is shown - what type of outcome measurement is it?
  2. What is a PROM?
  3. What is a CBOM (clinician-based outcome measure)?
  4. How do you choose a scoring system?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.The Harris hip score is shown - what type of outcome measurement is it?
  • A PROM (patient-reported outcome measure)
  • A self-completed questionnaire assessing symptoms and function
Q2.What is a PROM?
  • Self-completed questionnaires
  • Assess symptoms and functional disability
  • Examples: Oxford hip/knee score
Q3.What is a CBOM (clinician-based outcome measure)?
  • Objective measurement
  • Dependent on the reliability/reproducibility of the clinician's assessment
Q4.How do you choose a scoring system?
  • Reliability: consistency of results on repeated measurement (Kappa for categorical data), internal consistency, reproducibility (intra/inter-observer)
  • Validity: does it measure what it is supposed to - construct/content/criterion/concurrent
  • Clinical utility: patient and clinician friendliness
▸ Slide 115 · What is incidence and prevalence?Statistics · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Define prevalence and incidence.
  2. What population and disease factors make a good screening test (Wilson's criteria)?
  3. What test and economic factors make a good screening test?
  4. Why is scoliosis suitable for screening?
  5. What are the four categories of Wilson's criteria for a screening test?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Define prevalence and incidence.
  • Prevalence: cross section measure of the people having the event / whole population
  • Incidence: number of new case in a period of time/ population at risk
Q2.What population and disease factors make a good screening test (Wilson's criteria)?
  • Condition is an important health problem with high enough prevalence
  • Well-understood natural history
  • Presence of an early symptomatic/recognizable latent stage
  • Accepted treatment exists and an agreed policy on whom to treat
Q3.What test and economic factors make a good screening test?
  • A well-accepted test
  • High sensitivity essential, high specificity desirable
  • Cost of case-finding (diagnosis + treatment) economically balanced against overall medical care expenditure
Q4.Why is scoliosis suitable for screening?
  • Known natural history with an early detectable phase (>20 degrees in Risser stage 1 or before high chance of progress)
  • Early treatment (bracing) may alter the course of disease
  • Test: Adam forward bending with scoliometer - well accepted
  • Sensitivity uncertain
Q5.What are the four categories of Wilson's criteria for a screening test?
  • Population factor: important health problem with high enough prevalence
  • Disease factor: well-understood natural history, early/latent stage, accepted treatment, agreed policy
  • Test factor: well-accepted test - high sensitivity essential, high specificity desirable
  • Economic factor: cost of case-finding balanced against overall medical care expenditure
▸ Slide 116 · TumourStatistics · 1 question expand
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Q1-Q11 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What does the lecturer advise about these tumour revision notes?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What does the lecturer advise about these tumour revision notes?
  • Refer to Orthobullets for more details
  • These notes are not comprehensive
  • Remembering all Orthobullets tumours may only gain 1-2 more MCQs
▸ Slide 117 · Classification of staging: enneking/AJCCStatistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Which staging classification is used for bone and soft tissue tumours?
  2. What do AJCC stages I-IV mean?
  3. What are the Enneking stages for malignant bone tumours?
  4. What is the Enneking classification for benign bone tumours?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Which staging classification is used for bone and soft tissue tumours?
  • Bone benign/malignant: Enneking
  • Soft tissue sarcoma: AJCC
  • STC: AJCC
Q2.What do AJCC stages I-IV mean?
  • I: low grade
  • II: high grade
  • III: deep to fascia
  • IV: lymph node/metastasis
Q3.What are the Enneking stages for malignant bone tumours?
  • I: low grade
  • II: high grade
  • III: metastasis
  • A: intra-compartmental, B: extra-compartmental
Q4.What is the Enneking classification for benign bone tumours?
  • 1: latent
  • 2: active
  • 3: aggressive
▸ Slide 118 · DescribeStatistics · 16 questions expand
slide 118
Question list
Q1-Q1616 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings of this skeletally immature knee.
  2. What is your impression and what X-ray do you request next?
  3. What are the poor prognostic factors in osteosarcoma?
  4. How would you investigate this lesion?
  5. What is the management principle and neoadjuvant chemotherapy plan?
  6. What are the relative contraindications to limb salvage and the allograft 'terrible triad'?
  7. What history and examination findings are relevant in suspected osteosarcoma?
  8. What are the prerequisites for limb salvage and the principle of reconstruction?
  9. What are the options for reconstruction after tumour resection?
  10. How is a biopsy taken and how does percutaneous compare with incisional biopsy?
  11. What are the intra-operative and post-operative principles of biopsy?
  12. When is an excisional biopsy appropriate?
  13. What histological features suggest osteosarcoma on H&E?
  14. How is limb length discrepancy approached in tumour patients?
  15. What novel treatments are being studied for metastatic osteosarcoma?
  16. What are the properties of allograft reconstruction?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings of this skeletally immature knee.
  • Lytic lesion in the metaphyseal region of the distal femur with destruction of the lateral cortex
  • Wide zone of transition with periosteal reaction medially
  • Matrix is osseous and does not cross the physis
  • Associated soft tissue swelling
Q2.What is your impression and what X-ray do you request next?
  • Aggressive left distal femoral lesion; concerned about osteosarcoma
  • I want XR of the whole femur to look for obvious skip lesions
  • Other DDx: Ewing sarcoma, haematological (e.g. lymphoma), infection/osteomyelitis
Q3.What are the poor prognostic factors in osteosarcoma?
  • Advanced stage of disease (most predictive)
  • Age >40 at diagnosis; male sex
  • <90% necrotic index; positive surgical margins
  • Tumour site and size; vascular involvement
  • Expression of p glycoprotein (P-glycoprotein); high ALP and LDH
Q4.How would you investigate this lesion?
  • Aims: establish the diagnosis and stage the disease
  • Bloods: Hb, WBC, platelets, clotting, ALP (bone turnover), LDH (cell turnover), ESR, CRP
  • Local imaging: whole-bone X-ray 2 views, MRI with contrast (skip lesions, joint/physis involvement, NV bundle proximity)
  • Systemic staging: CT thorax + bone scan
  • Image-guided biopsy at a tertiary tumour centre - representative tissue with minimal contamination
  • Discuss the case at the MSK oncology MDT
Q5.What is the management principle and neoadjuvant chemotherapy plan?
  • Oncologic clearance with preservation of the limb and function if possible: save life (systemic control), save limb (local control)
  • Principle: Margin free excision (resect all inflammatory zone and go through cuff of normal tissue)
  • Neoadjuvant chemotherapy (4 reasons; no proven survival effect vs post-op chemo alone)
  • 2 cycles pre-op MAC: methotrexate, adriamycin, cisplatin; 4-week cycles
  • Restaging MRI, then OT; continue adjuvant chemo and amend by necrotic index
  • Good responder (90-100%): 3 more cycles; poor responder: VP16 + ifosfamide with 5 cycles (EURAMOS1 2016 does not support this - toxicity without EFS benefit)
Q6.What are the relative contraindications to limb salvage and the allograft 'terrible triad'?
  • Major NV encasement
  • Pathological fracture with haematoma violating compartment boundary
  • Inappropriately performed biopsy
  • Severe infection in surgical field; immature skeleton with predicted LLD >8cm
  • Extensive muscle/soft tissue involvement; poor response to chemo
  • Allograft terrible triad: fracture, infection, non-union (15% each); host bone ingrowth only 1-2mm/year
Q7.What history and examination findings are relevant in suspected osteosarcoma?
  • History: PMHx, constitutional symptoms
  • Local PE: soft tissue status, NV status, LLD, any knee effusion
  • Systemic PE: listen to lungs
Q8.What are the prerequisites for limb salvage and the principle of reconstruction?
  • Prerequisites: clear margins, durable and useful limb, limited morbidity, equal oncological outcome
  • Reconstruction principle: stable, painless, durable, mobile limb
Q9.What are the options for reconstruction after tumour resection?
  • Biological: autograft or allograft
  • Metallic implant: modular or custom-made
  • Combined reconstruction
Q10.How is a biopsy taken and how does percutaneous compare with incisional biopsy?
  • Options: percutaneous image-guided, incisional, excisional; most people now do percutaneous image-guided biopsy
  • True-cut biopsy x3 vs FNAC: architecture obtained 70% vs 9%
  • Incisional: GA, bigger/deeper wound with more bleeding, but a better chunk of tissue
  • Percutaneous may be inconclusive (reactive zone, central necrosis) - radiologically representative tissue may not be histologically representative
  • Better performed by the surgeon who will do the final excision
Q11.What are the intra-operative and post-operative principles of biopsy?
  • Pre-op: bloods + imaging
  • Intra-op: tourniquet without exsanguination, longitudinal incision, cross the least compartments, avoid NV structures, aim at representative tissue
  • Oval shape if bone; send for frozen section + microbiology
  • Careful haemostasis, drain in line, suture with small bites
  • Post-op: bed rest +/- protection, Abx (antibiotics)
Q12.When is an excisional biopsy appropriate?
  • Clinically benign lesion: small, superficial to fascia
  • Incisional and excisional biopsy margins are similar to the definitive surgery (1-2cm)
Q13.What histological features suggest osteosarcoma on H&E?
  • Pleomorphic spindle cells with lacey osteoid
  • high nuclear cytoplasmic ratio (high nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio), cellular atypia
  • Multiple mitotic bodies
Q14.How is limb length discrepancy approached in tumour patients?
  • Key considerations: growth potential and articular involvement
  • Options: growing prosthesis, lengthening, growth plate transfer, amputation, Van Nes rotationoplasty
  • Van Nes indication: major bone/soft tissue involvement without NV involvement
  • Used to change a high AKA to a BKA
Q15.What novel treatments are being studied for metastatic osteosarcoma?
  • Almost half of current trials evaluate immunotherapies such as mifamurtide, IL-2, PD-1 inhibitors
  • Tyrosine kinase inhibitors including regorafenib
Q16.What are the properties of allograft reconstruction?
  • Host bone grows into donor bone slowly: 1-2mm/year
  • Strength decreases by 50% at 10 years
  • Worse with allograft arthrodesis
  • APC usu in prox humerus and proximal tibia (tendon attachment to prosthesis difficult)
▸ Slide 119 · Pathological # in OSStatistics · 4 questions expand
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slide 119
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the prognostic significance of a pathological fracture in osteosarcoma?
  2. What does the Scully case series show regarding limb salvage in osteosarcoma with pathological fracture?
  3. What does the JBJS 2014 meta-analysis show regarding local recurrence after pathological fracture in osteosarcoma?
  4. What makes a pathological fracture in osteosarcoma amenable to limb salvage?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the prognostic significance of a pathological fracture in osteosarcoma?
  • Pathological fracture itself increases local recurrence and decreases survival
Q2.What does the Scully case series show regarding limb salvage in osteosarcoma with pathological fracture?
  • Limb salvaging surgery does not decrease survival in carefully selected patients
Q3.What does the JBJS 2014 meta-analysis show regarding local recurrence after pathological fracture in osteosarcoma?
  • Metanalysis JBJS 2014 - no statistical difference in local recurrence
Q4.What makes a pathological fracture in osteosarcoma amenable to limb salvage?
  • Respond to chemo
  • # healing
  • MRI confirmed salvageable
▸ Slide 120 · 10/MStatistics · 8 questions 1 check expand
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slide 120
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Q1-Q88 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the types of osteosarcoma?
  2. What is the classical X-ray appearance and DDx of osteosarcoma?
  3. What is the management plan and chemotherapy regime for osteosarcoma?
  4. What are the indications for amputation in osteosarcoma?
  5. What is the necrotic index and its prognostic value?
  6. How is a pathological fracture in osteosarcoma managed?
  7. What are the options for managing a bone defect after tumour resection?
  8. What determines the choice between limb salvage and limb sacrifice for local control?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the types of osteosarcoma?
  • Primary: intramedullary, telangiectatic, parosteal, periosteal
  • Secondary: Paget's disease, fibrous dysplasia, post-irradiation
Q2.What is the classical X-ray appearance and DDx of osteosarcoma?
  • Distal femur medullary region, wide transitional zone with bone formation and excessive periosteal reaction
  • Codman's triangle and sunburst appearance
  • DDx: infection, Ewing (young), metastasis (old), haematological malignancy
Q3.What is the management plan and chemotherapy regime for osteosarcoma?
  • Principle: oncological clearance with limb preservation if possible, without sacrificing tumour margin
  • Systemic control (chemo) + local control (surgery); regime neoadjuvant chemo / OT / chemo
  • 2 cycles pre-op (MTX, vincristine + cisplatin); reassessment (clinical, MRI, PET-CT); OT at week 10
  • Good response: 4 more cycles; poor response: change regime, 3w x 8 cycles
Q4.What are the indications for amputation in osteosarcoma?
  • Surgeon factor: not competent for limb reconstruction surgery
  • Patient factor: not fit for prolonged/multiple surgery or not fit for rehab
  • Disease factor: cannot achieve margin-free excision, or infection
Q5.What is the necrotic index and its prognostic value?
  • Percentage of necrosis in the excised specimen
  • Good response >90%: 80% of patients, 5-year survival 70-80%
  • Bad response: 5-year survival 40-50%
  • Guides the adjuvant chemotherapy regime
Q6.How is a pathological fracture in osteosarcoma managed?
  • Amputation is safe but not a must
  • Reassess with MRI to see whether margin-free wide local excision is achievable
  • Scully case series: pathological fracture has higher local recurrence and decreased survival, but limb salvage does not increase recurrence/death in carefully selected patients
  • Prognosis better if healing present
Q7.What are the options for managing a bone defect after tumour resection?
  • Amputation (soft tissue + bone + NV involvement)
  • Van Nes rotationoplasty (soft tissue + bone involved, NV intact)
  • Reconstruction: biological (autograft/allograft), metallic implant (modular/custom made), or combined
Q8.What determines the choice between limb salvage and limb sacrifice for local control?
  • Limb salvage possible if it does not affect oncological outcomes, there is a functional limb, and the risk of surgery is acceptable
  • Options include joint/physis-preserving surgery
  • Local control is achieved by surgery: limb salvaging vs limb sacrificing
Fact check

Neoadjuvant chemotherapy for osteosarcoma is MTX + vincristine + cisplatin (2 cycles pre-op) — erroneous regimen — Standard neoadjuvant regimen is MAP: high-dose methotrexate, doxorubicin (Adriamycin) and cisplatin; vincristine is not part of standard osteosarcoma regimens (slide 118 correctly lists methotrexate, adriamycin, cisplatin) — source

▸ Slide 121 · Disease factor: stage, location, size, grade, type, pathological #Statistics · 2 questions expand
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What disease factors determine prognosis?
  2. What biochemical and treatment-response factors determine prognosis?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What disease factors determine prognosis?
  • Stage, location, size, grade, type, pathological fracture
  • Assessed alongside biochemical and treatment-response factors
Q2.What biochemical and treatment-response factors determine prognosis?
  • Biochemical: ALP, LDH
  • Response to treatment: chemoresponse
▸ Slide 122 · Summary:Statistics · 2 questions expand
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slide 122
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the effect of a pathological fracture on recurrence in osteosarcoma?
  2. Does limb salvage affect survivorship after a pathological fracture?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the effect of a pathological fracture on recurrence in osteosarcoma?
  • Associated with an increased recurrence rate
  • Also associated with worse prognosis
Q2.Does limb salvage affect survivorship after a pathological fracture?
  • No - limb salvage surgery does not affect survivorship
  • Therefore pathological fracture is not an absolute contraindication to limb salvage
▸ Slide 123 · 50/ MStatistics · 8 questions expand
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slide 123
Question list
Q1-Q88 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What radiographic features of this pelvic lesion suggest a chondroid origin?
  2. What is the DDx for a chondral lesion at the pubic rami?
  3. How do you differentiate a benign from a malignant chondral lesion?
  4. How is treatment of chondrosarcoma decided?
  5. What is the prognosis of chondrosarcoma by grade?
  6. Which benign lesions can progress to chondrosarcoma?
  7. What history, examination and investigations are needed for a chondral lesion of the pubic rami?
  8. Why are PE and X-ray important in enchondroma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What radiographic features of this pelvic lesion suggest a chondroid origin?
  • Sclerotic, well-defined lesion adjacent to the pubic symphysis
  • Associated flocculent calcification (chondroid matrix)
  • No cortical erosion, scalloping or periosteal reaction
  • Overall suspicious for chondrosarcoma
Q2.What is the DDx for a chondral lesion at the pubic rami?
  • Chondroblastic osteosarcoma
  • Enchondroma
  • Fracture callus
  • Synovial chondromatosis
  • Fibrous dysplasia with cartilaginous differentiation
Q3.How do you differentiate a benign from a malignant chondral lesion?
  • Clinical: growth after puberty, new symptoms e.g. pain
  • Imaging: cartilage cap >2cm, soft tissue component, cortical breakage/erosion
  • Histology: enlarged chondrocytes with multinucleated lacunae, high N:C ratio, disorganization, hypercellularity
  • Diagnosis requires clinical + histological correlation (same histology may be benign in the hand but malignant in long bones)
Q4.How is treatment of chondrosarcoma decided?
  • Treatment depends on grading
  • Grade 1 in pelvis: intralesional curettage or wide excision
  • Grade 2-3: wide local excision
  • Chemotherapy is useful only in mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
Q5.What is the prognosis of chondrosarcoma by grade?
  • Grade 1: 90%
  • Grade 2: 70%
  • Grade 3: 30%
  • Undifferentiated: 10%
Q6.Which benign lesions can progress to chondrosarcoma?
  • Exostosis/enchondroma: 1%
  • MHE: 10%
  • Ollier's disease: 25-40%
  • Maffucci: 100%
Q7.What history, examination and investigations are needed for a chondral lesion of the pubic rami?
  • Hx/PE: other masses, duration and progress of symptoms
  • Ix: blood test, MRI with contrast (soft tissue extension, cartilage)
Q8.Why are PE and X-ray important in enchondroma?
  • Enchondroma: PE is important to differentiate - the difference between PE and X-ray is cartilage cap size
  • Important to X-ray the pelvis (cannot see otherwise)
▸ Slide 124 · XR of this skeletally mature patients right knee showing a large juxtaarticularStatistics · 7 questions 1 check expand
slide 124
Question list
Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the likely diagnosis and which conditions must be excluded?
  2. What history, examination and investigations are needed?
  3. What is the histological appearance and the Campanacci classification?
  4. What are the management principles and recurrence rates?
  5. Why is cement inserted after extended curettage and what does extended curettage mean?
  6. What adjunct medical treatments are used and what are their caveats?
  7. What other surgical option exists for GCT besides extended curettage?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the likely diagnosis and which conditions must be excluded?
  • Large juxtaarticular (juxta-articular), eccentric, lytic expansile lesion with geographic destruction of the lateral condyle
  • No cortical break, no matrix, no sclerotic margins, narrow zone of transition
  • Likely an aggressive benign lesion such as GCT
  • Tumourous DDx: ABC, clear cell chondrosarcoma, telangiectatic osteosarcoma
  • Non-tumourous DDx: brown’s tumor (brown's tumour), infection
Q2.What history, examination and investigations are needed?
  • History: onset, progression, pain, constitutional symptoms
  • PE: knee tenderness, AROM, effusion; systemic exam for lymph nodes/masses
  • Bloods to r/o infection/metabolic cause: CBC, CRP, ESR, Ca/PO4 (brown's tumour), bone profile
  • MRI (T1 hypointense lesion); confirm with image-guided biopsy
  • Systemic staging: CT thorax (2% pulmonary met) + bone scan
Q3.What is the histological appearance and the Campanacci classification?
  • Mononuclear cells (monocytes), spindle cells and multinucleated giant cells
  • Campanacci 1-3: cortex undisrupted, thinning, disrupted
  • Guides recurrence rate and local progressiveness
Q4.What are the management principles and recurrence rates?
  • Reduce local recurrence and preserve function
  • Discuss pros and cons of resection vs curettage with the patient
  • Resection 5% recurrence, extended curettage 10%, curettage 20-50%
  • Overall 5-year disease-free survival 75%, mortality 15%
Q5.Why is cement inserted after extended curettage and what does extended curettage mean?
  • Cement provides thermal ablation of tumour, immediate mechanical support and easy detection of recurrence
  • Recurrence decreased from 10% to 5% with adjuvant therapy
  • Extended curettage = curettage (extensive exterioration) + adjuncts: mechanical burring, thermal cement, cryo nitrogen, chemical phenol, osmosis water
  • 2014 paper: curettage + nitrogen + cement recurrence rate 6%, similar to resection
Q6.What adjunct medical treatments are used and what are their caveats?
  • Bisphosphonate (Shi et al 2019 meta-analysis: reduces local recurrence)
  • Denosumab 120mg once/week x3, then once/2 weeks, then monthly (Lancet 2019)
  • Denosumab is very potent at stopping all osteoclastic activity but has no anti-tumour effect; stopping may cause 44% recurrence (JBJS 2021) and it makes curettage harder
  • Zoledronic acid has dose-dependent cell inhibition and apoptosis in stromal cells
  • Denosumab may be neoadjuvant in extensive bone destruction to consolidate tumour before resection; shown to reduce angiogenesis and microvessel density
  • RT for unfit/multiple recurrence: 15% malignant transformation risk
Q7.What other surgical option exists for GCT besides extended curettage?
  • Resection + reconstruction with graft / prosthesis / both
Fact check

Denosumab for GCT is 120mg once/week x 3 then once/2 weeks then monthly — dosing schedule imprecise — Approved GCTB dosing is 120 mg SC every 4 weeks with additional 120 mg loading doses on days 8 and 15 of the first month (weekly for the first 3 doses, then every 4 weeks - not 2-weekly) — source

▸ Slide 125 · XR left humerus showing a metaphyseal intramedullary centrally located bone lesiStatistics · 6 questions expand
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slide 125
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings and impression.
  2. What is the DDx and what is the role of MRI?
  3. What is the management of enchondroma and the indications for surgery?
  4. Immediate vs delayed surgery for a pathological fracture through an enchondroma?
  5. What is the pathogenesis and biopsy appearance of enchondroma?
  6. What are the XR differences between enchondroma and chondrosarcoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings and impression.
  • Left humerus: metaphyseal, intramedullary, centrally located bone lesion with flocculent calcification
  • Narrow zone of transition; no cortical erosion, no periosteal reaction, no soft tissue swelling
  • Impression: enchondroma
Q2.What is the DDx and what is the role of MRI?
  • Bone infarct
  • Chondrosarcoma
  • MRI to rule out chondrosarcoma: increase in T2 signal, no marrow oedema/periosteal reaction
Q3.What is the management of enchondroma and the indications for surgery?
  • Observe if asymptomatic or static in size
  • Curettage + bone graft + fixation
  • Indications: symptoms, increase in size/>5cm, pathological fracture
Q4.Immediate vs delayed surgery for a pathological fracture through an enchondroma?
  • Immediate: one stage, immediate rehab; disadvantage - difficult to maintain stability
  • Delayed: bone healing increases stability; disadvantage - more stiffness
  • Outcomes in terms of union are equal, therefore immediate is preferred
Q5.What is the pathogenesis and biopsy appearance of enchondroma?
  • Incomplete enchondroma ossification
  • Escape of chondroblasts and epiphyseal cartilage proliferation at the metaphysis
  • Beware chondrosarcoma if in pelvis, rib or scapula
  • Biopsy: hypocellular, mature hyaline cartilage, chondrocytes with small single nuclei in lacunar space
Q6.What are the XR differences between enchondroma and chondrosarcoma?
  • Enchondroma: chondroid/lytic, <5cm, cortical expansion, <50% canal width
  • Chondrosarcoma: lytic + blastic, >5cm, cortical erosion + reactive thickening, >50% canal width
▸ Slide 126 · Ewings sarcomaStatistics · 7 questions expand
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slide 126
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Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Where does Ewing sarcoma occur and what are the X-ray features?
  2. What is the clinical presentation and DDx of Ewing sarcoma?
  3. What investigations confirm Ewing sarcoma?
  4. What is the treatment principle in Ewing sarcoma?
  5. What is the local control strategy and when is radiotherapy used?
  6. What are the RT complications, poor prognostic factors and survival?
  7. What is the epidemiology and origin of Ewing sarcoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Where does Ewing sarcoma occur and what are the X-ray features?
  • Typically lower limb, pelvis, proximal humerus
  • Destructive permeative, moth eaten, lytic lesion in the metaphysis and diaphysis with variable new bone formation
  • Onion-skin periosteal lifting (characteristic but uncommon)
  • Soft tissue component is often large
Q2.What is the clinical presentation and DDx of Ewing sarcoma?
  • Fever + pain - thus mimics infection
  • DDx: osteosarcoma, haematological, osteomyelitis, eosinophilic granuloma
Q3.What investigations confirm Ewing sarcoma?
  • Bloods: raised ESR, anaemia, increased WBC, LDH (prognostic >200IUml / >200 IU/mL)
  • MRI: soft tissue component, reduced T1 due to marrow invasion, increased with contrast
  • Biopsy: monotonous small blue round cells, high N:C ratio, CD99+
  • Bone marrow biopsy to rule out metastasis to the marrow: consistent chromosomal translocation (11;22) with EWS-FLI 1 fusion protein
  • CT/CXR: metastases in 30% at presentation
Q4.What is the treatment principle in Ewing sarcoma?
  • Oncologic clearance with preservation of limb and function: save life (systemic control), save limb (local control)
  • Multimodality approach: multiagent chemotherapy, irradiation and surgical resection
  • Pre-op chemotherapy 2-3 months, then resection, maintenance chemo 6-12 months
Q5.What is the local control strategy and when is radiotherapy used?
  • Trend towards surgical resection (wide margin excision) for all surgically accessible sites; assess tumour necrosis
  • RT indications: positive margin, metastasis, poor response to chemo
  • Chemo + OT +/- adjuvant RT = chemo + RT
Q6.What are the RT complications, poor prognostic factors and survival?
  • RT complications: 10-20% secondary sarcoma, fracture, physeal damage/LLD, osteonecrosis, muscle atrophy, stiffness, Joint: contracture
  • Poor prognostic factors: metastases (1/4), >14yo, male, spine/pelvic tumours, >100cm3, poor chemo response (<90% necrosis), raised LDH/WCC, low Hb, p53 mutation
  • 5-year disease-free survival ~65% (~half with mets); lung mets 30% cure, marrow 30% cure, both 10-15% cure
Q7.What is the epidemiology and origin of Ewing sarcoma?
  • Distinctive small round cell sarcoma occurring most often in children and young adults (5-25)
  • 2nd most common malignant tumour in children
  • Neuroectodermal cells arise from the medullary canal and invade the haversian system
▸ Slide 127 · 70/y Known Ca liver with bone metStatistics · 7 questions expand
slide 127
Question list
Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the diagnosis and what differentials must be considered for this humeral lesion?
  2. What history and examination findings are important in this patient with a suspected bone metastasis?
  3. How would you investigate a suspected bone metastasis?
  4. What is the management aim and plan for bone metastasis?
  5. What is the Mirel's score and how does it guide management?
  6. Describe the pathogenesis of bone metastasis and osteolysis.
  7. What newer radiological and oncological assessment scores exist for bone metastases?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the diagnosis and what differentials must be considered for this humeral lesion?
  • Dx: bone metastasis - poorly defined lytic lesion over the distal 1/3 of the humerus with endosteal scalloping; no fracture
  • Request whole-length X-ray to screen the rest of the bone
  • DDx: haematological (myeloma), infection, brown's tumour
Q2.What history and examination findings are important in this patient with a suspected bone metastasis?
  • Premorbid status + ECOG (0 fully active, 1 strenuous activity restricted, 2 self care, 3 limited self care, 4 completely disabled)
  • Pain; Sx of hypercalcemia (moans, groans, stones etc); LL weakness or numbness; constitutional symptoms
  • Local: NV status, soft tissue
  • Systems examination: thyroid, breast, PR
Q3.How would you investigate a suspected bone metastasis?
  • Acute: hypercalcaemia; inflammatory markers (ESR - MM), LDH (lymphoma), tumour markers
  • Haematology: serum electrophoresis, A/G ratio (normal 1.1-2.5)
  • Find primary: bone scan or PET-CT
  • No primary found -> biopsy to rule out primary bone tumour
  • Image the whole bone
Q4.What is the management aim and plan for bone metastasis?
  • MDT approach; Take into account patient factors, and also disease factors (primary prognosis <3 months -> conservative; local lesion Mirel's score)
  • Aim: single operation to restore function, improve quality of life/pain and facilitate nursing care
  • Construct should allow immediate full weight bearing and be durable enough to outlast the patient's remaining lifespan
  • Non-op: RT, bisphosphonate, denosumab (superior effect decreasing fractures)
  • Peri-op: embolization to reduce bleeding (RCC, thyroid, HCC), consent: perioperative mortality >10% (1/2 due to tumor emboli), antibiotics/cement, post-op RT + bisphosphonate
Q5.What is the Mirel's score and how does it guide management?
  • Prognostic tool predicting risk of pathological fracture (retrospective study of fractures 6 months post RT)
  • Components: site (UL, LL, peritrochanteric), size (<1/3, 1/3-2/3, >2/3), lesion (blastic, mixed, lytic), pain (mild, moderate, severe)
  • <=7: 4% risk (RT); 8: 15%; >=9: 33% (OT)
  • Sensitivity 91%, specificity 35%
  • Rule of thumb: >50% of a single cortex of a long bone = significant fracture risk; avulsion of the lesser trochanter = imminent hip fracture
Q6.Describe the pathogenesis of bone metastasis and osteolysis.
  • Metastasis: intravasation (E cadherin, PDGF), immunological evasion, location (integrins), extravasation (matrix metalloproteinase (MMP)), proliferation (VEGF), reduced apoptosis (decrease thrombospondin)
  • Osteolysis: tumour cytokines (IL-6, IL-11, PTHrP, TGFbeta / TGF-beta) activate osteoblasts
  • Osteoblasts secrete RANKL, which binds RANK and activates osteoclasts
  • Endothelin-1: osteoblast activation (osteoblastic lesions of breast, prostate)
Q7.What newer radiological and oncological assessment scores exist for bone metastases?
  • Tatar (J Radiol Oncol 2014): circumferential involvement >30% was the only predictive factor for pathological fracture
  • Scandinavian Sarcoma Group score (2013) predicts survival to tailor treatment
  • Takes into account: number of skeletal mets, presence of organ mets, type of cancer, Karnofsky score
▸ Slide 128 · XR of proximal humeral head flattening + surgical clips in axillaStatistics · 4 questions expand
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slide 128
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the DDx for proximal humeral head flattening with surgical clips in the axilla?
  2. What history is relevant in this patient?
  3. What are the problems with using a nail in this case?
  4. What conservative options may be tried?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the DDx for proximal humeral head flattening with surgical clips in the axilla?
  • Post-radiotherapy AVN
  • Tumour recurrence with metastasis
  • Post RT osteosarcoma (post-radiotherapy osteosarcoma)
  • Came back to be metastasis
Q2.What history is relevant in this patient?
  • History of malignancy (surgical clips in axilla)
Q3.What are the problems with using a nail in this case?
  • Humeral head already collapsed - potential pain generator
  • Difficulty in getting the entry site in a stiff shoulder
Q4.What conservative options may be tried?
  • Bisphosphonates
  • Radiotherapy
▸ Slide 129 · liposarcomaStatistics · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the clinical photo and how you assess the mass.
  2. What features suggest malignancy in a soft tissue tumour?
  3. How are soft tissue sarcomas classified and staged?
  4. How would you investigate a suspected soft tissue sarcoma?
  5. What is the management and when is pre-operative radiotherapy given?
  6. What are the features of MFH, synovial sarcoma and liposarcoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the clinical photo and how you assess the mass.
  • Large swelling over the left back with some overlying skin bruises
  • Assess for inflammation, nature of mass (consistency), position and attachment, regional lymph nodes
  • Large soft intramuscular swelling
Q2.What features suggest malignancy in a soft tissue tumour?
  • >5cm, deep to fascia
  • Progressive in size, onset of pain
Q3.How are soft tissue sarcomas classified and staged?
  • AJCC: 1. size (>5cm), 2. deep to fascia, 3. node, 4. metastasis, 5. grade
  • Stage 1 = low grade, 2 = high grade, 3 = deep to fascia, 4 = metastasis
  • Grading: low (well differentiated), intermediate (myxoid), high (de-differentiated)
  • Stage 1-2: 80% 5-year survival; stage 3-4: 50% 5-year survival
Q4.How would you investigate a suspected soft tissue sarcoma?
  • X-ray to see bony destruction
  • MRI: extent, invasion, NV involvement (increase T2, decrease T1; gadolinium - increased T1 peripherally, decreased centrally in cystic/necrotic areas)
  • Bloods to rule out infection and check INR
  • Image-guided biopsy (histology + MDM2 genetic marker)
  • At least CT thorax to rule out metastasis
Q5.What is the management and when is pre-operative radiotherapy given?
  • Wide local excision +/- radiotherapy
  • May consider marginal excision in low grade (well-differentiated liposarcoma)
  • Pre-op RT depends on histological grade, cell type (myxoid), and proximity to NV bundle
  • Myxoid type: CT TAP for abnormal sites of metastasis; preop radiotherapy as vascular
Q6.What are the features of MFH, synovial sarcoma and liposarcoma?
  • MFH (= undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma): most common soft tissue sarcoma; slow growing, no ecchymosis, lung mets; iso T1, increased T2; pleomorphic (>80%) > giant cell (10%) >infl (<10%), most high grade
  • Synovial sarcoma: not synovial origin; commonest sarcoma in young adults (15-40) in the foot; LN and lung mets; calcification 25%; gene (X;18); biphasic epithelial + spindle cells; always high grade
  • Liposarcoma: 2nd most common soft tissue sarcoma, not from lipoma; lipoblasts; types well differentiated/sclerosing/myxoid; high grade round cell/pleomorphic/dedifferentiated
▸ Slide 130 · Neural tumorStatistics · 7 questions expand
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Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a neurilemmoma and what are its histological features?
  2. What is the treatment of neurilemmoma?
  3. How do neurofibroma and schwannoma differ in relation to nerve fibres?
  4. Compare NF type I and type II.
  5. Compare dermal and plexiform neurofibromas.
  6. What is MPNST and neuroblastoma?
  7. What are the types of Schwann cells and their significance?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a neurilemmoma and what are its histological features?
  • Benign schwannoma
  • Antoni A: spindle cells in intersecting bundles (battle formation); Antoni B: less cellular, loosely arranged cells
  • Verocay bodies: pathognomonic - two rows of aligned nuclei in palisading formation
  • S100 positive; MRI string sign; paraesthesia in distribution of the peripheral nerve
Q2.What is the treatment of neurilemmoma?
  • Observe
  • Excision carries a high rate of sensory deficit
  • Careful dissection, excise lesion parallel to nerve fascicles
Q3.How do neurofibroma and schwannoma differ in relation to nerve fibres?
  • Schwannoma is eccentric to nerve fibres
  • Solitary neurofibroma is central to nerve fibres
  • Neurofibroma involves non-myelinating Schwann cells and other perineural cells
  • Excision with nerve graft if symptomatic
Q4.Compare NF type I and type II.
  • Type I (von Recklinghausen): chromosome 17, tibia pseudoarthrosis, spine most common skeletal involvement - dystrophic scoliosis and dural ectasia
  • Type II: chromosome 22, bilateral vestibular schwannoma, central meningioma, no scoliosis
  • Autosomal dominant disorder of neural crest
  • Skeletal: scoliosis, kyphosis, atlantoaxial instability; congenital anterolateral bowing of tibia/forearm; hemi-hypertrophy
Q5.Compare dermal and plexiform neurofibromas.
  • Dermal: single peripheral nerve, fusiform swelling; 90% sporadic, 10% in NF1; at puberty; do not become malignant
  • Plexiform: multiple nerve bundles, bag of worms; pathognomonic of NF1; early childhood; 10% become malignant (MPNST)
Q6.What is MPNST and neuroblastoma?
  • MPNST (malignant schwannoma): arises from large nerves (sciatic, brachial plexus), motor and sensory deficit; treat with wide surgical resection + radiotherapy
  • Neuroblastoma: malignant from sympathetic neural tissue; most common solid tumour of childhood
  • Adrenal involvement causes tachycardia and abdominal mass; bone mets common and poor prognostic; lecturer describes overall good prognosis
  • Treatment: chemo + stem cell transplant + surgical excision
Q7.What are the types of Schwann cells and their significance?
  • Myelinating Schwann cells - found in large nerves
  • Non-myelinating Schwann cells - found in small nerves, responsible for neurofibromatosis
▸ Slide 131 · other Soft tissue tumorStatistics · 9 questions expand
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Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is an intramuscular myxoma?
  2. What is rhabdomyosarcoma?
  3. What is leiomyosarcoma?
  4. What is dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans?
  5. What is malignant fibrous histiocytoma (undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma)?
  6. What is extra-abdominal desmoid tumour and its associations?
  7. What is nodular fasciitis?
  8. What is plantar fibromatosis (Ledderhose disease)?
  9. What is calcifying aponeurotic fibroma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is an intramuscular myxoma?
  • Benign, homogeneous
  • Excise if symptomatic
  • MRI: bright T2, dark T1
Q2.What is rhabdomyosarcoma?
  • Malignant; most common soft tissue sarcoma in children
  • Rapidly growing painless mass
  • Treatment: chemo for metastasis, radiotherapy for inoperable, excision
Q3.What is leiomyosarcoma?
  • Aggressive malignant tumour from smooth muscle cells lining small blood vessels
  • Osteolytic, moth-eaten lesions in the metaphysis of long bones
  • Treatment: chemotherapy + wide surgical resection
Q4.What is dermatofibrosarcoma protuberans?
  • Fibrogenic cutaneous sarcoma
  • Can result from neurofibromatosis
  • t(17;22) encodes PDGFB/COL1A1 fusion protein
Q5.What is malignant fibrous histiocytoma (undifferentiated pleomorphic sarcoma)?
  • Most common soft tissue sarcoma in adults
  • Pain and swelling; high grade - looks like osteosarcoma
  • Types: pleomorphic 80-85%, giant cell 10%, inflammatory <10%
  • Treatment: same as osteosarcoma - wide local resection and radiation
Q6.What is extra-abdominal desmoid tumour and its associations?
  • Aggressive fibromatosis; most invasive of benign soft tissue tumours
  • Associations: Dupuytren's disease, Ledderhose disease, FAP
  • Distinctive rock hard mass; oestrogen receptor positive
  • Treatment: tamoxifen (oestrogen receptor blocker) and radiotherapy
Q7.What is nodular fasciitis?
  • A reactive lesion
Q8.What is plantar fibromatosis (Ledderhose disease)?
  • Myofibroblast and collagen proliferation
  • Similar process to Dupuytren's fibromatosis
  • Ask about hand involvement and Peyronie's disease in men
Q9.What is calcifying aponeurotic fibroma?
  • Painless mass in the hands and feet of children and young adults
▸ Slide 132 · Multiple myelomaStatistics · 9 questions 1 check expand
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Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is the epidemiology and immunoglobulin profile of multiple myeloma?
  2. Why are osteolytic lesions seen in multiple myeloma?
  3. What are the diagnostic criteria and CRAB features of multiple myeloma?
  4. What are the myeloma-defining events (MDEs) and ISS staging?
  5. What are the XR and imaging findings in myeloma and the role of bone marrow aspirate?
  6. What are the types, treatment and prognosis of plasma cell neoplasms?
  7. What histological features are seen in myeloma plasma cells?
  8. What are the diagnostic criteria for solitary plasmacytoma?
  9. What are the poor prognostic factors in multiple myeloma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is the epidemiology and immunoglobulin profile of multiple myeloma?
  • Most common primary bone malignancy; 1% of all malignancies; males > females
  • Neoplastic plasma cells produce immunoglobulins
  • Heavy chains: IgG 52%, IgA 21%, IgM 12%
  • Light chains: kappa and lambda (Bence Jones proteins)
Q2.Why are osteolytic lesions seen in multiple myeloma?
  • Osteoclastic stimulation via RANKL and pro-osteoclastic mediators (M-CSF, IL-6, IL-11)
  • Osteoprotegerin (OPG) synthesis is suppressed, causing further osteoclast activation
  • Osteoblastic differentiation inhibited by TNF and Dickkopf-1 (DKK-1)
Q3.What are the diagnostic criteria and CRAB features of multiple myeloma?
  • >=10% monoclonal plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy (or biopsy-proven plasmacytoma) plus >=1 CRAB feature/MDE
  • Calcium: >0.25 mmol/L above upper limit of normal or >2.75 mmol/L (>11mg/dL)
  • Renal: creatinine clearance <40mL/min or creatinine >177umol/L (>2mg/dL)
  • Anaemia: Hb <100g/L or >20g/L below the lowest limit of normal
  • Bone: >=1 osteolytic lesion on radiographs, CT or PET/CT
  • If marrow has <10% clonal plasma cells, >1 bone lesion is required to distinguish from solitary plasmacytoma with minimal marrow involvement
Q4.What are the myeloma-defining events (MDEs) and ISS staging?
  • MDE: >=60% clonal plasma cells on bone marrow biopsy
  • MDE: involved:uninvolved free light chain ratio >=100 (involved light chain >=100mg/L)
  • MDE: >=1 focal lesion on MRI >=5mm
  • ISS stage I: beta-2 microglobulin <3.5mg/L, albumin >=3.5g/dL (62 months); II: 3.5-5.4mg/L (44 months); III: >=5.5mg/L (29 months)
Q5.What are the XR and imaging findings in myeloma and the role of bone marrow aspirate?
  • Punched-out lytic lesions, only visible once >50% destruction has occurred
  • No sclerotic border - due to lack of osteoblastic activity
  • Bone scans are cold in 30%; skeletal survey is recommended
  • FDG-PET 93% sensitivity; may uncover additional sites in 'solitary' plasmacytoma
  • Marrow aspirate: plasmacytoma 10-30% vs myeloma >30% plasma cells (normal <2%); CD138+, Hoffa clear zone
Q6.What are the types, treatment and prognosis of plasma cell neoplasms?
  • Solitary plasmacytoma: single skeletal site, radiosensitive, progresses to myeloma in >50%; MRI/FDG-PET finds additional lesions in 33%
  • Osteosclerotic myeloma: rare POEMS - polyneuropathy, organomegaly, endocrinopathy, sclerotic bone lesions, M protein, skin changes
  • Treatment: asymptomatic/MGUS - annual surveillance; solitary plasmacytoma - external beam irradiation alone; myeloma - multiagent chemo +/- stem cell transplant +/- bisphosphonates
  • Fractures: surgical stabilisation + RT (life expectancy >3 months); kyphoplasty for vertebral compression with instability/neural compression resistant to radiation
  • Prognosis: 5-year survival 30%, 10-year 11%, median 3 years; shortest survival with renal failure; solitary plasmacytoma has the best prognosis
Q7.What histological features are seen in myeloma plasma cells?
  • Round plasma cells with eccentric nucleus and prominent nucleolus
  • Clock-face organisation of chromatin
Q8.What are the diagnostic criteria for solitary plasmacytoma?
  • Solitary lesion on skeletal survey
  • Histologic biopsy confirmation of plasmacytoma
  • Negative bone marrow biopsy (no plasma cells in bone marrow)
Q9.What are the poor prognostic factors in multiple myeloma?
  • Chromosome 13 deletion or translocations t(4;14), t(14;16)
  • Circulating plasma cells
  • Increased beta-2 microglobulin (elevated tumour burden); decreased serum albumin
  • Increased marrow microvessels
  • Overall survival relates to stage and secondary factors like renal failure or hypercalcaemia
Fact check

Multiple myeloma 5-year survival is 30%, 10-year survival 11%, median survival 3 years — outdated — With modern therapy, SEER data (2016-2022) report 5-year relative survival around 62-64%; the 30%/11% figures are historical and should not be quoted as current — source

▸ Slide 133 · XR of patients right hip showing a centrally located lytic lesion over metaphysStatistics · 15 questions expand
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Q1-Q1515 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings of a unicameral bone cyst in this patient.
  2. What is a unicameral (simple) bone cyst?
  3. What is the modified Neer classification of a UBC?
  4. What are the risk factors for pathological fracture in a UBC?
  5. Describe the Scaglietti injection technique for a UBC.
  6. What are the management options for a UBC?
  7. What are the differentials for a centrally located metaphyseal lytic lesion in a child?
  8. What history should be elicited in a suspected UBC?
  9. What is the histology of a UBC?
  10. What is the role of MRI in a UBC?
  11. What factors determine the management of a UBC?
  12. What is the difference between an active and a latent UBC?
  13. What is the fallen leaf sign?
  14. What are the common sites and natural history of a UBC?
  15. What is the combined technique for a UBC and its healing rate?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings of a unicameral bone cyst in this patient.
  • Centrally located lytic lesion in the metaphysis, abutting the physis
  • Narrow zone of transition - favours a nonaggressive lesion
  • Fallen leaf sign+ with pathological fracture
  • Dx: UBC with pathological fracture
Q2.What is a unicameral (simple) bone cyst?
  • Benign serous fluid-filled bone lesion with a fibrous lining
  • Temporary failure of medullary bone formation near the physis
  • Theories: synovial remnant, traumatic haematoma, venous occlusion
  • Common in children <20 years; central metaphyseal lesion abutting the physis
  • Often presents with pathological fracture (50%)
Q3.What is the modified Neer classification of a UBC?
  • I healed: cyst filled with new bone, radiolucent area <1cm
  • II healed with defect: radiolucent area <50% of the bone diameter
  • III persistent cyst: radiolucent area >50% of the bone diameter with a thin cortical rim
  • IV recurrent cyst: reappearance or increase in size of the radiolucent area
Q4.What are the risk factors for pathological fracture in a UBC?
  • Peritrochanteric region
  • Cyst transverse diameter ballooning >85% of the affected bone
  • Cyst wall <0.5mm thick
  • Active phase, male, multilocuated
  • Curettage + bone grafting +/- internal fixation for fracture/AVN (structural concern)
Q5.Describe the Scaglietti injection technique for a UBC.
  • Technique: (Scaglietti method)
  • Insert the needle and aspirate
  • Yellow serous fluid + complete contrast filling -> second needle for irrigation; no suction (increases bleeding), then steroid injection
  • Bloody or incomplete contrast filling -> biopsy
  • Mechanism of steroid: exerts a destructive action on pathological tissue and thus favoured a progressive process of repair and avoid surgery (80-200mg)
  • Inhibit prostagalndin E
Q6.What are the management options for a UBC?
  • Conservative first; if 6/52 not heal then likely ABC - go for MRI
  • Intervene if high risk of fracture regardless of symptoms, or symptomatic + active cyst
  • Injection (steroid, autogenous bone marrow aspirate +/- DBM/calcium phosphate), decompression, combined techniques
  • Decompression had better healing than steroid or bone marrow aspirate (JPO 2011)
  • Calcium sulfate pellets 66%; allograft only 25-36%; combined healing >95%
  • Humerus fracture: immobilise; femur fracture: curettage + BG + ORIF
Q7.What are the differentials for a centrally located metaphyseal lytic lesion in a child?
  • Aneurysmal bone cyst (ABC)
  • Fibrous dysplasia
  • Non-ossifying fibroma (NOF)
  • Telangiectatic osteosarcoma
Q8.What history should be elicited in a suspected UBC?
  • Pain?
  • Previous fracture?
  • Infection?
Q9.What is the histology of a UBC?
  • Thin, fibrous lining containing fibrous tissue
  • Giant cells
  • Haemosiderin pigment
  • A few chronic inflammatory cells
Q10.What is the role of MRI in a UBC?
  • Not necessary for diagnosis
  • T1 dark, T2 bright
  • Gadolinium shows classic rim enhancement of a cystic lesion
  • May look for a solid component
Q11.What factors determine the management of a UBC?
  • 1. Symptoms? 2. Active? 3. Location? 4. Fracture?
  • Aim: promote healing and prevent complications
  • Conservative first
Q12.What is the difference between an active and a latent UBC?
  • Active: touching the physis, increasing in size, thin cortex
  • Latent: grows with increasing distance between the lesion and physis, intact cortex
  • UBC and ABC abut the physeal scar; GCT can cross the physis
Q13.What is the fallen leaf sign?
  • Pathological fracture with a fallen cortical fragment in the base of a fluid-filled cyst
  • Pathognomonic of a unicameral bone cyst
Q14.What are the common sites and natural history of a UBC?
  • Children <20 years; proximal humerus (also proximal femur, distal tibia, ilium, calcaneum)
  • Symmetric cystic expansion with thinning of the cortices; becomes Trabaculated after multiple # (fractures)
  • Often decrease/heal as the patient approaches skeletal maturity
  • Fracture healing leads to cyst resolution in 15%
  • If active -> close follow-up for recurrence, fracture and growth arrest
Q15.What is the combined technique for a UBC and its healing rate?
  • 1. Cystography with aspiration of cyst fluid + injection of dye
  • 2. Percutaneous curettage of the cyst lining
  • 3. IM decompression with angle curet or flexible IM nail
  • 4. Calcium sulfate pellets
  • Healing rate >95%
▸ Slide 134Statistics · 2 questions expand
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Q1-Q22 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What topic does this slide cover?
  2. What are the key learning points from this slide?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What topic does this slide cover?
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
Q2.What are the key learning points from this slide?
  • Not covered in the speaker notes
▸ Slide 135 · Lytic expansile lesion with internal septae and sclerotic rim in metaphyseal regStatistics · 9 questions expand
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Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings of an aneurysmal bone cyst.
  2. What are the differentials for an expansile metaphyseal lytic lesion in a young patient?
  3. What are the key features of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  4. What are the histology and MRI findings in an ABC?
  5. What is the management of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  6. What are the clinical features and complications of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  7. What laboratory tests are done in an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  8. Why must every aneurysmal bone cyst be biopsied?
  9. What are the typical sites of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings of an aneurysmal bone cyst.
  • Lytic expansile lesion with internal septae and a sclerotic rim in the metaphyseal region abutting the physis
  • Sclerotic rim; narrow zone of transition
  • No periosteal reaction
  • Eccentric metaphyseal lesion with bone destruction, a classic rim of new bone and bony septae (bubbly appearance)
Q2.What are the differentials for an expansile metaphyseal lytic lesion in a young patient?
  • Chondromyxoid fibroma (if young), UBC, GCT
  • Telangiectatic osteosarcoma
  • Brown tumour
Q3.What are the key features of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  • Non-neoplastic reactive lesion able to destroy local bone and extend into soft tissue
  • Multiple blood-filled cavities
  • 75% <20 years; long bone >60% (usually metaphysis), spine 15%
  • Gene: USP-6 ubiquitin specific protease (Paget = UBPS/sequestosome)
Q4.What are the histology and MRI findings in an ABC?
  • Cavernous blood-filled spaces without an endothelial lining (essential)
  • Thin bony septa with numerous giant cells
  • MRI: T2 fluid-fluid levels (characteristic) +/- periosteal layer surrounding the lesion
Q5.What is the management of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  • Rule out a secondary cause, control symptoms, prevent progression
  • Always look for a primary tumour (30%): GCT, chondroblastoma, FD, CMF, NOF
  • Fracture: immobilise and let the fracture heal first, then treat as no fracture
  • No fracture: curettage +/- adjunct (phenol, argon beam, liquid nitrogen) + bone graft +/- OIRF if high stress area
  • 25% recurrence if the physis is still open
Q6.What are the clinical features and complications of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  • Pain from expansion
  • Pathological fracture
  • May be secondary to a primary tumour
Q7.What laboratory tests are done in an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  • Inflammatory markers
  • CaPO4, ALP, LDH
Q8.Why must every aneurysmal bone cyst be biopsied?
  • It can be secondary to GCT, chondroblastoma, chondromyxoid fibroma or fibrous dysplasia
  • Always look for a primary tumour (30%)
Q9.What are the typical sites of an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  • Spine 15%
  • Long bones >60% (usually metaphysis)
  • Posterior pelvis; calcaneum
▸ Slide 136 · Telangiectatic OSStatistics · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings of telangiectatic osteosarcoma.
  2. What is the typical presentation of telangiectatic osteosarcoma?
  3. How does the MRI of telangiectatic osteosarcoma differ from ABC?
  4. What are the differentials and management of telangiectatic osteosarcoma?
  5. What features favour telangiectatic osteosarcoma over an aneurysmal bone cyst?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings of telangiectatic osteosarcoma.
  • Skeletally mature patient
  • Eccentric lytic lesion in the metaphyseal region of the medial distal femoral metaphysis
  • Cortical destruction; no extension into the joint
  • Periosteal reaction with Codman triangle; matrix is osseous
  • Significant soft tissue component
Q2.What is the typical presentation of telangiectatic osteosarcoma?
  • Age 15-25, male
  • Previous radiation
  • Pain; pathological fracture in 25%
Q3.How does the MRI of telangiectatic osteosarcoma differ from ABC?
  • Less defined fluid levels compared with ABC
  • Extensive soft tissue oedema
Q4.What are the differentials and management of telangiectatic osteosarcoma?
  • Ddx: GCT, ABC
  • Mx as per conventional osteosarcoma
Q5.What features favour telangiectatic osteosarcoma over an aneurysmal bone cyst?
  • Codman triangle and periosteal reaction
  • Osseous matrix
  • Significant soft tissue component
  • Less defined fluid levels and extensive soft tissue oedema on MRI
▸ Slide 137 · AP Xray pelvis and bilateral proximal femurStatistics · 10 questions expand
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Q1-Q1010 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings in polyostotic Paget's disease.
  2. What are the causes of pain in Paget's disease?
  3. What is the risk and prognosis of malignant transformation in Paget's disease?
  4. What investigations are used in Paget's disease?
  5. When is medical treatment indicated in Paget's disease?
  6. What are the operative concerns in Paget's disease?
  7. What is Paget's disease?
  8. What is the histology and what are the phases of Paget's disease?
  9. What deformities and gait changes occur in Paget's disease?
  10. What is the role of NSAIDs and monitoring in Paget's disease?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in polyostotic Paget's disease.
  • Asymmetry of the pelvis; left hemipelvis larger with diffuse osteosclerosis and coarse trabeculae
  • Right proximal femur: thickened cortex, loss of corticomedullary junction, coxa vara
  • Brim sign: thickened iliopectineal line
  • Dx: Polyosteotic Paget's disease
  • Ddx: bone metastases, fibrous dysplasia, myelofibrosis
Q2.What are the causes of pain in Paget's disease?
  • Compression neuropathy (spinal stenosis, hearing loss, basilar invagination)
  • 2.Arthritis; 3.Blood flow/bone enlargement
  • Pathological fracture (fissure or chalk-stick transverse fracture)
  • Malignant transformation
Q3.What is the risk and prognosis of malignant transformation in Paget's disease?
  • Paget's osteosarcoma <1%, usually >70 years
  • Poor prognosis: 5% survival at 5 years
Q4.What investigations are used in Paget's disease?
  • Raised ALP (osteoblast activity), raised serum acid phosphatase (osteoclast activity); calcium normal
  • Raised urine hydroxyproline and collagen cross-linked peptides (collagen turnover)
  • X-ray: deformity/enlarged bone, coarse trabeculae, loss of corticomedullary differentiation
  • Osteoporosis circumscripta; flame sign (advancing V-shaped lytic lesion)
  • Bone scan (80% polyostotic); echo
Q5.When is medical treatment indicated in Paget's disease?
  • Pain, before operation, high-risk lesion, or medical complication (high-output failure)
  • Aim: retard osteoclast activity
  • Bisphosphonate (oral/IV) first line; calcitonin (SC/IM)
  • Teriparatide contraindicated (increases Paget's sarcoma)
Q6.What are the operative concerns in Paget's disease?
  • General: high bleeding risk, post-op HO, hypercalcaemia with immobilisation (hypercalcemia with immobilization)
  • Fracture: flexible or stiff locked IM nail with osteotomy; post-op bracing due to slow healing
  • TJR: malalignment from very soft and patchy very hard bone
  • Causes of hypercalcaemia: secondary hyperPTH, immobilisation, neoplastic change
Q7.What is Paget's disease?
  • Disorder of high bone turnover causing distortion of architecture and abnormal lamellar bone formation
  • Increased osteoclastic bone resorption is the primary cellular abnormality
  • Mono-ostotic or poly-ostotic (80%)
  • Most are sporadic; some AD inheritance; paramyxovirus infection implicated
Q8.What is the histology and what are the phases of Paget's disease?
  • Histology: mosaic pattern of disorganized lamellar bone
  • Phases: lytic, mixed, blastic - can co-exist in the same bone
Q9.What deformities and gait changes occur in Paget's disease?
  • Saber tibia; LLD (leg length discrepancy)
  • Gait: stooped posture, lumbar kyphosis, hips in fixed flexion contracture (FFC)
  • History should include premorbid status and family history
Q10.What is the role of NSAIDs and monitoring in Paget's disease?
  • NSAIDs for symptom control
  • Monitor for complications
▸ Slide 138 · #:Statistics · 3 questions expand
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Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. How is a fracture in Paget's disease managed?
  2. Why is immobilisation detrimental in Paget's disease?
  3. What are the pre-, intra- and post-operative considerations?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.How is a fracture in Paget's disease managed?
  • Avoid immobilisation; prefer flexible IM fixation with bracing afterwards
Q2.Why is immobilisation detrimental in Paget's disease?
  • Causes osteopenia
  • Causes hypercalcaemia
Q3.What are the pre-, intra- and post-operative considerations?
  • Pre-op: bisphosphonate, cardiac condition optimisation
  • Intra-op: deformity, bleeding
  • Post-op: heterotopic ossification (HO), slow healing
▸ Slide 139 · Fibrous dysplasiaStatistics · 12 questions 1 check expand
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Q1-Q1212 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings in fibrous dysplasia.
  2. What is the pathophysiology of fibrous dysplasia?
  3. What syndromes are associated with fibrous dysplasia?
  4. What is the histology and risk of malignant transformation in fibrous dysplasia?
  5. What are the indications and principles of surgery in fibrous dysplasia?
  6. What medical treatment is used in fibrous dysplasia?
  7. Which patients and bones are affected by fibrous dysplasia?
  8. What deformities can fibrous dysplasia cause?
  9. What natural history of fibrous dysplasia must patients be counselled about?
  10. What investigations are performed in fibrous dysplasia?
  11. What are the aims of treatment in fibrous dysplasia?
  12. What intraoperative difficulties are anticipated in fibrous dysplasia surgery?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in fibrous dysplasia.
  • Expansile lesion at the metaphyseal region with cortical thinning
  • Intramedullary with a narrow transition zone
  • Ground-glass matrix, no periosteal reaction
  • Mild varus deformity of the proximal femur (shepherd crook deformity)
  • Ddx: bone cyst/ enchondroma (if matrix less ground glass), infection, brown tumour, haematological, metastasis in older patients
Q2.What is the pathophysiology of fibrous dysplasia?
  • Localised dysfunction of osteoblast differentiation (via increased cAMP signalling) and maturation
  • Failure of lamellar bone formation (failure of lamella bone formation); bone is replaced by fibrous tissue
  • Mutation of Ch 20q23 (GNAS), not inherited
Q3.What syndromes are associated with fibrous dysplasia?
  • McCune-Albright syndrome (McCune Albright syndrome): polyostotic FD, cafe au lait spots (coast of Maine), hyperfunctioning endocrine disease (precocious puberty, hyperT4, acromegaly)
  • Scoliosis; GNAS mutation
  • Mazabraud syndrome: polyostotic FD + soft tissue intramuscular myxoma
Q4.What is the histology and risk of malignant transformation in fibrous dysplasia?
  • Histology: alphabet soup appearance - trabeculae of osteoid within fibrous stroma
  • Malignant transformation 1% (osteosarcoma/fibrosarcoma); 5-10% in polyostotic disease (per notes)
  • Nocturnal pain suggests malignant transformation
Q5.What are the indications and principles of surgery in fibrous dysplasia?
  • Indications: pathological fracture, enlarging lesion, recurrent fracture/deformity, high stress area (femoral neck)
  • Polyostotic: mainly deformity correction and fracture prevention
  • Monostotic: curettage; monostotic -> aim to remove tumor (curative)
  • Curettage, allograft (autograft transforms into fibrous tissue), stable titanium IM nail +/- osteotomy
Q6.What medical treatment is used in fibrous dysplasia?
  • Bisphosphonate for symptomatic polyostotic patients: pain relief, decrease fracture, partial resolution of lesion
  • Denosumab - ongoing study (J Bone Miner Res 2021)
Q7.Which patients and bones are affected by fibrous dysplasia?
  • Can involve any bone
  • More common in females
Q8.What deformities can fibrous dysplasia cause?
  • Mono-ostotic vs polyostotic disease
  • Coxa vara with Trendelenburg gait
  • Blindness with skull involvement
Q9.What natural history of fibrous dysplasia must patients be counselled about?
  • Progression of the existing lesion + appearance of new lesions
  • Old lesions will not mature - problem of remodelling: decreased cellularity, increased collagen deposition, persistent woven bone, no compressive/tensile trabeculae -> progressive deformity
  • Progressive deformity until maturity, but may progress again with maturity
Q10.What investigations are performed in fibrous dysplasia?
  • Inflammatory markers, ALP, LDH - increase suggests malignant transformation
  • Skeletal survey to rule out polyostotic disease (if polyostotic, screen for syndromes)
  • If mono-ostotic: consider biopsy for diagnosis (monoostotic: consider biopsy for Dx)
Q11.What are the aims of treatment in fibrous dysplasia?
  • Decrease pain, prevent fracture +/- correct deformity
Q12.What intraoperative difficulties are anticipated in fibrous dysplasia surgery?
  • Lesions can be very vascular - prepare blood
  • Choose the correct implant with the right NSA
Fact check

Malignant transformation in fibrous dysplasia is 1%, rising to 5-10% in polyostotic disease — Overstated for polyostotic disease — Published series report ~0.4-1% overall and up to ~4% in McCune-Albright/familial cases; 5-10% is higher than most sources — medium confidence — source

▸ Slide 140 · XR: well defined intramedullary lytic lesion over the diaphyseal region of the rStatistics · 11 questions expand
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Q1-Q1111 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings in eosinophilic granuloma.
  2. What is Hand-Schuller-Christian disease?
  3. What is the histology of eosinophilic granuloma?
  4. What investigations are needed in eosinophilic granuloma?
  5. How is spinal deformity in eosinophilic granuloma managed?
  6. What are the clinical features of eosinophilic granuloma?
  7. What is the natural history of eosinophilic granuloma?
  8. What are the sites of involvement in eosinophilic granuloma?
  9. What is the spectrum of histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell histiocytosis)?
  10. What is vertebra plana and what is its differential?
  11. What is the great mimicker differential of eosinophilic granuloma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in eosinophilic granuloma.
  • Well-defined intramedullary lytic lesion in the diaphysis of the right femur
  • Laminated periosteal reaction with thinning of the cortex
  • Highly destructive with a well-defined border
  • Ddx: Ewing sarcoma, infection, haematological
Q2.What is Hand-Schuller-Christian disease?
  • Triad: multiple lytic lesions, diabetes insipidus, exophthalmos
  • Chronic disseminated Langerhans histiocytosis with visceral involvement, >3 years old
Q3.What is the histology of eosinophilic granuloma?
  • Langerhans cells (antigen-presenting): pale staining, coffee bean nuclei, eosinophilic, Birbeck granules
  • Giant cells present
  • No atypia; normal nuclear/cytoplasmic ratio
Q4.What investigations are needed in eosinophilic granuloma?
  • Bloods; local imaging with MRI
  • Systemic staging: CT thorax + bone scan
  • Tissue diagnosis (biopsy)
Q5.How is spinal deformity in eosinophilic granuloma managed?
  • Bracing first line: corrects 90% of deformity and regains 50% of vertebral height
  • Failed (10%) -> low-dose radiotherapy
  • Curettage + BG +/- steroid if nonoperative treatment fails or for a solitary lesion close to an articular surface
  • HSC: vinblastine + steroid
Q6.What are the clinical features of eosinophilic granuloma?
  • Pain + limp
  • Progressive kyphotic posture
Q7.What is the natural history of eosinophilic granuloma?
  • Self-limiting benign histiocytic lesion
  • Monostotic bone disease
  • Highly destructive with a well-defined border
  • Biopsy alone may be sufficient treatment
Q8.What are the sites of involvement in eosinophilic granuloma?
  • Skull, ribs, clavicle, scapula, mandible
  • Spine especially thoracic (vertebral plana)
  • Diaphyseal regions of long bones and the pelvis
Q9.What is the spectrum of histiocytosis X (Langerhans cell histiocytosis)?
  • A reticuloendothelial system pathology
  • Eosinophilic granuloma (monostotic)
  • Hand-Schuller-Christian disease: chronic disseminated with visceral involvement, >3 years old
  • Letterer-Siwe disease: <3 years old, fatal
Q10.What is vertebra plana and what is its differential?
  • Single level vertebral collapse
  • Ddx: post-TB, post-fracture, haematogenous
  • Compare with platyspondyly (diffuse) in SED/osteomalacia
Q11.What is the great mimicker differential of eosinophilic granuloma?
  • Osteomyelitis, leukaemia, lymphoma
  • Fibrous dysplasia, Ewing sarcoma
▸ Slide 141 · Describe Xray: osteolytic lesion over intertrochanteric region with surrounding Statistics · 9 questions expand
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Q1-Q99 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings of osteoid osteoma.
  2. What is the classic clinical presentation of osteoid osteoma?
  3. What is the double-density sign on bone scan?
  4. How is nidus size used to distinguish osteoid osteoma from osteoblastoma?
  5. What are the management options for osteoid osteoma?
  6. What are the differences between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?
  7. What is the pathophysiology of pain in osteoid osteoma?
  8. What is the histology of osteoid osteoma?
  9. What investigations are performed for a suspected osteoid osteoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings of osteoid osteoma.
  • Osteolytic lesion over the intertrochanteric region with surrounding sclerosis
  • +/- homogenous cortical thickening
  • +/- radiolucent nidus
  • +/- solid periosteal reaction
  • Ddx: Brodie's abscess, stress/healing fracture, fibrous cortical defect, Ewing sarcoma
Q2.What is the classic clinical presentation of osteoid osteoma?
  • Night pain, worse after alcohol, relieved by NSAIDs
  • Flexion contracture of the knee
  • Painful scoliosis
Q3.What is the double-density sign on bone scan?
  • A small focus of intense radioactivity in the nidus
  • Superimposed on a larger area of lower, but still increased, radioactivity
Q4.How is nidus size used to distinguish osteoid osteoma from osteoblastoma?
  • CT delineates the nidus: <1.5cm = osteoid osteoma
  • >1.5cm = osteoblastoma (typically 3-4cm)
Q5.What are the management options for osteoid osteoma?
  • Conservative NSAIDs: 50% treated with NSAID alone; sole treatment in spinal involvement without scoliosis; self-resolves in 3 years
  • CT-guided radiofrequency ablation: failed conservative or juxta-articular lesions with contracture; controversial in spine as close to neural elements, need 1cm safe zone in spine; 85% success
  • RFA complications: skin burn, stress riser at long bone; allows concomitant biopsy
  • Surgery (marginal excision): failed conservative when RFA not possible, painful scoliosis; CT navigation adjunct
Q6.What are the differences between osteoid osteoma and osteoblastoma?
  • Nidus size: <1.5cm (osteoid osteoma) vs >1.5cm/typically 3-4cm (osteoblastoma)
  • Location: proximal femur > tibia > spine vs posterior elements of the spine > proximal femur
  • Course: self-limiting vs progressive; NSAID relief yes vs no
  • Surgery: +/- vs yes; osteoblastoma has more giant cells histologically
Q7.What is the pathophysiology of pain in osteoid osteoma?
  • Nidus of central woven bone with osteoblastic rimming surrounded by a reactive zone
  • Pain due to prostaglandin E2 concentration and COX1/2 expression
  • Increased unmyelinated nerve endings within
  • Spontaneous bleeding within
Q8.What is the histology of osteoid osteoma?
  • Distinct border between the osteoid nidus and reactive bone
  • Nidus of immature osteoid + osteoblastic rim
  • Increased mitotic figures with normal NC ratio
  • Osteoblastoma = more giant cells
Q9.What investigations are performed for a suspected osteoid osteoma?
  • Blood test to rule out infection
  • X-ray: reactive bone with a radiolucent nidus
  • CT to delineate the size of the nidus
  • Bone scan: double-density sign
▸ Slide 142 · Describe CT:Statistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the CT findings in this patient.
  2. What is the differential diagnosis of an anterior spinal tumour?
  3. What is the assessment of osteoblastoma?
  4. What is the histology and management of osteoblastoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the CT findings in this patient.
  • Axial cut showing a lytic lesion over the facet
  • Expansile, with no cortical breakage and no periosteal reaction
  • No definite narrowing of the spinal canal
  • Ddx: osteoblastoma, ABC, GCT, exostosis, chondrosarcoma
Q2.What is the differential diagnosis of an anterior spinal tumour?
  • Metastasis, haemangioma, multiple myeloma
  • Eosinophilic granuloma, chordoma
  • Osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, Ewing sarcoma
Q3.What is the assessment of osteoblastoma?
  • Hx/PE: dull pain not relieved by NSAIDs, neurological symptoms
  • Tumour markers including SPE
  • X-ray: expansile lytic lesion with reactive bone; CT to delineate nidus
  • Bone scan hot; MRI if neurological complication
Q4.What is the histology and management of osteoblastoma?
  • Similar to osteoid osteoma but with more giant cells
  • Nidus of immature osteoid surrounded by osteoblasts, increased mitotic figures but no atypia
  • Marginal excision; recurrence 10-20%
▸ Slide 143 · Clinical photo of patient with upper and lower limb deformitiesStatistics · 3 questions expand
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Q1-Q33 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the deformities shown in the clinical photo.
  2. What negative findings are documented?
  3. What upper limb features are present?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the deformities shown in the clinical photo.
  • Genu valgum; right knee flexed and internally rotated posture
  • No gross leg length discrepancy
  • Forearm radial bowing + ulnar deviation of the hand
  • Prominent radial styloid; ulnar shortened; +/- radial head subluxation
Q2.What negative findings are documented?
  • No absent ray
  • No gross joint swelling
  • No skin changes or stigmata
Q3.What upper limb features are present?
  • Radial bowing with ulnar deviation of the hand
  • Prominent radial styloid
  • Ulnar shortening
  • +/- radial head subluxation
▸ Slide 144 · adamantinomaStatistics · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the X-ray findings in adamantinoma.
  2. What is adamantinoma?
  3. What are the differentials for adamantinoma?
  4. What is the assessment and biopsy appearance in adamantinoma?
  5. What is the management of adamantinoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in adamantinoma.
  • Skeletally mature patient
  • Multiple lucent lesions separated by septa of bone with a soap bubble appearance
  • Cortical lesion at the anterior cortex of the proximal tibia with cortical thickening
  • Wide transition zone, no increase in anterior bowing, no obvious periosteal reaction
Q2.What is adamantinoma?
  • Low grade malignancy of unknown origin
  • Usually 20-40 years old, located nearly always at the anterior tibia
  • May metastasize to lung (25%)
Q3.What are the differentials for adamantinoma?
  • Osteofibrous dysplasia, ossifying fibroma, osteoid osteoma
  • Brodie's abscess, fracture callus
  • Haematological malignancy
Q4.What is the assessment and biopsy appearance in adamantinoma?
  • Hx: insidious pain; PE: anterior bowing deformity, palpable mass
  • CXR: lung mets 25%; MRI: decrease in T1 signal
  • Biopsy: fibrous and epithelial +/- glandular tissue in a gland-like pattern (glandular tissue in gland like pattern)
Q5.What is the management of adamantinoma?
  • Wide margin excision + reconstruction
  • RT/chemotherapy not used due to slow growth
▸ Slide 145 · Describe Xray:Statistics · 5 questions expand
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  1. Describe the X-ray findings in chondroblastoma.
  2. What are the differentials for an epiphyseal lytic lesion?
  3. What is the natural history of chondroblastoma?
  4. What is the biopsy appearance and treatment of chondroblastoma?
  5. What assessment is performed for chondroblastoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in chondroblastoma.
  • Lytic lesion in the epiphysis of a skeletally immature patient
  • no obvious matrix seen; narrow transition zone with sclerotic border
  • Not expansile; no periosteal reaction; the physis has been breached
Q2.What are the differentials for an epiphyseal lytic lesion?
  • Telangiectatic osteosarcoma, infection, metabolic disease
  • GCT and clear cell chondrosarcoma in older patients
  • Can have a secondary ABC
Q3.What is the natural history of chondroblastoma?
  • Majority <25 years, common around 12
  • Usually epiphyseal, can cross the physis; most common around the knee, also proximal humerus/femur
  • <1% benign metastasis to lung; CXR shows lung mets in 2% (per notes)
Q4.What is the biopsy appearance and treatment of chondroblastoma?
  • Biopsy: cobblestone, chickenwire appearance, scattered multinucleated giant cells, chondroid matrix
  • Intralesional curettage +/- adjuvant therapy (phenol or cryotherapy); 10-15% recurrence
  • Excision in patients with lung metastasis
Q5.What assessment is performed for chondroblastoma?
  • Hx/PE: pain and tenderness
  • CXR for lung mets (2%)
  • Blood test; MRI
  • Biopsy
▸ Slide 146 · Non ossifying fibromaStatistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a non-ossifying fibroma and who does it affect?
  2. Describe the X-ray findings in non-ossifying fibroma.
  3. What conditions are associated with non-ossifying fibroma?
  4. What is the histology and treatment of non-ossifying fibroma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a non-ossifying fibroma and who does it affect?
  • Most common benign bone tumour in childhood (5-15 years)
  • Metaphysis/meta-diaphyseal junction
  • Pathogenesis: abnormal osteoclastic resorption at the subperiosteal level during metaphyseal remodelling
Q2.Describe the X-ray findings in non-ossifying fibroma.
  • Meta-diaphyseal junction
  • Eccentric
  • Bubbly lytic lesion surrounded by a sclerotic rim
Q3.What conditions are associated with non-ossifying fibroma?
  • ABC, neurofibromatosis
  • Jaffe-Campanacci syndrome: multiple NOF, cafe au lait pigmentation, mental retardation, heart/eyes/gonads involvement
Q4.What is the histology and treatment of non-ossifying fibroma?
  • Fibroblastic spindle cells in a storiform pattern (whorls of elongated spindle cells)
  • Treatment: always conservative
  • Ddx: UBC, ABC, fibrous dysplasia, infection
▸ Slide 147 · XR:Statistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the differentials and MRI findings in CMF?
  2. What is the biopsy appearance of chondromyxoid fibroma?
  3. What is the management and recurrence rate of CMF?
  4. Describe the X-ray findings in chondromyxoid fibroma.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the differentials and MRI findings in CMF?
  • Ddx: NOF, ABC, chondroblastoma with breaching of the physis
  • MRI: T1 hypointense, T2 hyperintense
Q2.What is the biopsy appearance of chondromyxoid fibroma?
  • Hypercellular fibrous matrix
  • Hypocellular chondroid matrix
  • Stellate spindle cells in a myxoid matrix
Q3.What is the management and recurrence rate of CMF?
  • Intra-lesional curettage + bone graft/cement
  • Recurrence up to 30%
Q4.Describe the X-ray findings in chondromyxoid fibroma.
  • Skeletally immature patient
  • Lytic lesion at the proximal tibial metaphysis
  • Eccentrically located with cortical expansion and destruction
  • Narrow zone of transition
  • No periosteal reaction or soft tissue swelling
  • Dx: CMF
▸ Slide 148 · Clinical photo showing patients nail with partial bluish discolorationStatistics · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a glomus tumour and where does it occur?
  2. What is the classic clinical triad of a glomus tumour?
  3. What are the Love and Hildreth tests?
  4. What imaging and treatment are used for a glomus tumour?
  5. Describe the clinical findings in this patient with a glomus tumour.
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a glomus tumour and where does it occur?
  • Benign subungual tumour arising from the glomus body, a perivascular temperature-regulating structure
  • Frequently at the tip of a digit or beneath the nail
  • Usually young adults 20-40 years; 3/4 in hand, 1/2 in finger, 1/2 with distal phalanx erosion
  • Ddx: melanoma
Q2.What is the classic clinical triad of a glomus tumour?
  • Paroxysmal pain
  • Exquisite tenderness to touch
  • Cold intolerance
Q3.What are the Love and Hildreth tests?
  • Love test: pinhead -> pain
  • Hildreth test: tourniquet -> less pain
Q4.What imaging and treatment are used for a glomus tumour?
  • X-ray: pressure erosion; MRI: low T1, high T2
  • Marginal excision +/- reconstruct nailbed contour with autogenous fat graft
  • Recurrence 20%
Q5.Describe the clinical findings in this patient with a glomus tumour.
  • Partial bluish discoloration of the nail
  • No nail ridging
  • Ddx: melanoma
  • Also known as paraganglioma
▸ Slide 149 · melenomaStatistics · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is Hutchinson sign and what does it imply in this patient?
  2. What are the classical ABCDE features of melanoma?
  3. What are the risk factors for melanoma?
  4. How is melanoma worked up?
  5. What are the Breslow and Clark classifications of melanoma?
  6. What determines the treatment of melanoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is Hutchinson sign and what does it imply in this patient?
  • Subungual discolouration extending to involve the eponychium
  • Hutchinson sign - treat as melanoma until proven otherwise
Q2.What are the classical ABCDE features of melanoma?
  • Asymmetry
  • Border
  • Color
  • Diameter (<6mm likely benign)
  • Elevation/enlargement
Q3.What are the risk factors for melanoma?
  • Fair skin, multiple nevi, family history
  • Sun exposure, immunosuppression
Q4.How is melanoma worked up?
  • Hx: recent change, itch, bleeding
  • PE: ulceration, satellite lesions, regional lymph nodes
  • Imaging: CT thorax and abdomen to rule out metastasis (lung/liver); USG for lymph nodes
  • Dx: incisional biopsy, LN biopsy
Q5.What are the Breslow and Clark classifications of melanoma?
  • Breslow: depth in mm - <0.75 / 1.5 / 4 / >4; survival 96% if <0.7mm, 47% if >4mm
  • Clark I: epidermis (in situ), no invasion (normal melanocytes at deepest epidermal layer)
  • Clark II: papillary dermis; III: papillary dermis up to papillary-reticular interface
  • Clark IV: reticular dermis; V: subcutaneous tissue
Q6.What determines the treatment of melanoma?
  • Depends on grading, lymph nodes, metastasis, location of lesion
  • 1mm -> 1cm resection margin
  • >1mm -> 2cm margin + sentinel LN biopsy (+/- radical LN dissection)
  • Subungual melanoma -> distal amputation + sentinel LN biopsy
  • Positive LN/metastasis: local resection, LN dissection, chemotherapy
  • Poor prognostic factors: depth, male, neck/scalp site, ulceration, LN or metastasis
▸ Slide 150 · Mass with +ve tinel signStatistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is a schwannoma (neurilemma)?
  2. What are the clinical and MRI findings in a schwannoma?
  3. What is the histology of a schwannoma?
  4. What is the treatment of a schwannoma?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is a schwannoma (neurilemma)?
  • Encapsulated tumour on the surface of a peripheral nerve
  • Associated with mutation affecting the NF2 gene
Q2.What are the clinical and MRI findings in a schwannoma?
  • Hx: paraesthesia in the distribution of the peripheral nerve
  • PE: positive Tinel sign
  • MRI: T1 low, T2 high, enhances with contrast; string sign (Ddx: neurofibroma)
Q3.What is the histology of a schwannoma?
  • Antoni A: spindle cells arranged in intersecting bundles
  • Antoni B: loosely arranged cells
  • Verocay bodies are pathognomonic
  • Uniform S100 antibody staining
Q4.What is the treatment of a schwannoma?
  • Marginal excision with careful dissection
  • Excise the mass parallel to the nerve
▸ Slide 151 · osteopetrosisStatistics · 6 questions 2 check expand
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  1. Describe the X-ray findings in osteopetrosis.
  2. What is the pathophysiology of osteopetrosis?
  3. What are the orthopaedic and non-orthopaedic features of osteopetrosis?
  4. What is the treatment of osteopetrosis?
  5. What is the histology of osteopetrosis?
  6. What are the types of osteopetrosis?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the X-ray findings in osteopetrosis.
  • Skeletally immature patient with generalised increased bone density
  • Canal not well seen; radiolucency at the distal femur
  • Erlenmeyer flask appearance over the distal femur
  • Dense endplate with rugger jersey appearance
  • Wormian bones; Ddx: hypoparathyroidism, pyknodysostosis, lead poisoning
Q2.What is the pathophysiology of osteopetrosis?
  • Congenital disease causing dysfunction of the osteoclast
  • Defect in proton pump, carbonic anhydrase 2, or chloride channel
Q3.What are the orthopaedic and non-orthopaedic features of osteopetrosis?
  • Ortho: usually asymptomatic in AD type except fracture, OA, higher risk of osteomyelitis
  • X-ray: coxa vara due to repeated fracture, bone-in-bone appearance, Erlenmeyer flask, rugger jersey spine
  • Non ortho: blindness/ deafness in AR type, anemia, cranial nerve dysfunction
  • Bloods usually normal (AR type may show increased acid phosphatase/PTH)
Q4.What is the treatment of osteopetrosis?
  • AR: bone marrow transplant, high-dose vitamin D
  • AD: interferon gamma-1b (interferon gamma -1 beta) (Key et al NEJM 1995)
  • Surgery for proximal femur fracture: use a plate (marrow space obliterated)
Q5.What is the histology of osteopetrosis?
  • Osteoclasts lack a ruffle border and clear zone
  • Empty lacunae
  • Plugging of the haversian canals
Q6.What are the types of osteopetrosis?
  • Malignant (severe): AR, may be fatal in childhood without transfusion
  • Intermediate: AR, can survive to adulthood
  • Benign (mild): AD, most common, 2 types
  • Type I: no increased fracture risk
  • Type II (Albers-Schonberg disease): anaemia, pathological fractures, premature osteoarthritis; first presentation is fracture
Fact check

Intermediate osteopetrosis is autosomal recessive and is called Albers-Schonberg disease — Misleading / internally contradictory — Albers-Schonberg disease is the autosomal dominant type II (mild) form, as the same slide later states; intermediate osteopetrosis can be AR or AD — source

Autosomal dominant osteopetrosis is treated with interferon gamma-1b (Key et al NEJM 1995) — Misleading - Key 1995 studied severe infantile (recessive) disease — IFN-gamma-1b is FDA approved for severe malignant osteopetrosis (autosomal recessive), often as a bridge to HSCT; evidence in ADO is insufficient and it was poorly tolerated — source

▸ Slide 152 · HyperparathyroidismStatistics · 5 questions expand
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Q1-Q55 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the X-ray features of hyperparathyroidism?
  2. What is the clinical presentation of hyperparathyroidism?
  3. What is a brown tumour?
  4. What is the histology and management of hyperparathyroidism?
  5. What is metastatic calcification in hyperparathyroidism?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the X-ray features of hyperparathyroidism?
  • Metastatic calcification: nephrocalcinosis, lungs, blood vessels, synovium/chondrocalcinosis, calcinosis cutis
  • Subperiosteal resorption: salt and pepper skull, middle phalanx and ulna (increased concavity)
  • Brown tumour (osteitis fibrosa cystica): lytic and expansile
  • Rugger jersey spine with sclerotic endplates
Q2.What is the clinical presentation of hyperparathyroidism?
  • Bones, groans, stones, psychic moans
  • PE: signs of CKD (oedema, cafe au lait appearance), vitamin D deficiency, renal transplant scar/RLQ mass
Q3.What is a brown tumour?
  • Osteitis fibrosa cystica
  • Lytic and expansile; rapid bone loss -> hypervascular granulation -> fibrous tissue
  • Histology = GCT
  • Other Ddx: metastasis, multiple myeloma, GCT/ABC
Q4.What is the histology and management of hyperparathyroidism?
  • Focal area of increased osteoclasts amidst fibrous stroma
  • Peripheral rim of osteoid
  • Treat the underlying cause (parathyroidectomy / renal replacement therapy)
Q5.What is metastatic calcification in hyperparathyroidism?
  • Calcification in normal soft tissue due to a local increase in calcium -> calcium phosphate deposition
  • Sites: nephrocalcinosis, lungs, blood vessels, synovium/chondrocalcinosis, calcinosis cutis
▸ Slide 153 · Renal osteodystrophyStatistics · 4 questions expand
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Q1-Q44 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What is renal osteodystrophy and what are the XR findings?
  2. What is the pathophysiology of low-turnover renal osteodystrophy?
  3. What other bone disease occurs in chronic renal failure?
  4. What is the pathophysiology of high-turnover renal osteodystrophy?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What is renal osteodystrophy and what are the XR findings?
  • Failure of bone mineralisation due to chronic renal failure
  • XR: brown tumour and looser zone at the compression side
Q2.What is the pathophysiology of low-turnover renal osteodystrophy?
  • Aluminium toxicity
  • Decreases PTH release
  • Decreases osteoblast differentiation and proliferation
  • Decreased mineralisation -> osteomalacia (adynamic bone secondary to Al toxicity)
Q3.What other bone disease occurs in chronic renal failure?
  • Osteoporosis
  • Amyloid bone disease: B2 macroglobulin deposits in the juxta-articular region, especially ball-and-socket joints
  • XR: bone cyst with sclerotic edge causing erosive arthritis
  • Other sites: carpal tunnel syndrome + carpal cyst
Q4.What is the pathophysiology of high-turnover renal osteodystrophy?
  • Phosphate retention increases PTH by 3 mechanisms
  • 1. Direct decrease in serum calcium, stimulating PTH
  • 2. Decrease in renal 1-alpha hydroxylation -> less serum calcium
  • 3. Direct increase in synthesis of PTH
  • Secondary hyperPTH raises serum Ca, which binds phosphate -> ectopic calcification
▸ Slide 154 · Well circumscribed radioopacityStatistics · 6 questions expand
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Q1-Q66 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. Describe the imaging findings of loose bodies in the elbow.
  2. What is the clinical presentation and what is it associated with?
  3. What is the pathogenesis of loose bodies?
  4. What is the classification of loose bodies?
  5. What are the phases of synovial osteochondromatosis?
  6. What are the MRI findings and management of loose bodies?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.Describe the imaging findings of loose bodies in the elbow.
  • Well-circumscribed radio-opacity
  • Clustered ossification/calcification
  • Mainly over the anterior elbow, also around the trochlear groove
  • Minimal OA; no varus/valgus malalignment; no stippled calcification
Q2.What is the clinical presentation and what is it associated with?
  • Age 30-40 years
  • Pain, loose body sensation, locking
  • Association: OA, OCD, osteochondroma
Q3.What is the pathogenesis of loose bodies?
  • Synovial cell metaplasia into chondrocytes (primary spontaneous; secondary incited by loose bodies)
  • Nutrition from synovial fluid
  • Cartilage shell: increased nourishment -> increase in size
  • Calcified core: decreased nourishment, apoptosis, calcium salt remains
Q4.What is the classification of loose bodies?
  • Primary: synovial metaplasia; XR smaller, similar in size
  • Secondary: OCD, OA, AVN, osteochondroma; XR larger, varied
Q5.What are the phases of synovial osteochondromatosis?
  • Phase 1: active synovitis without loose bodies
  • Phase 2: nodular synovitis along with loose bodies
  • Phase 3: loose bodies present with resolution of synovitis
Q6.What are the MRI findings and management of loose bodies?
  • Cartilage shell: decrease T1, increase T2
  • No cartilage shell: decrease in both T1 and T2
  • Mx: symptom relief, prevent secondary OA
  • Synovectomy + removal of loose bodies
▸ Slide 155 · Soft tissue calcificationStatistics · 7 questions expand
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Q1-Q77 questions — tap to reveal all answerslist
  1. What are the three main categories of soft tissue calcification?
  2. What are the causes of dystrophic soft tissue calcification?
  3. What are the types and causes of metastatic soft tissue calcification?
  4. How is calcinosis classified by extent?
  5. Where can calcinosis be deposited anatomically?
  6. What are the radiological features of tumoral calcinosis?
  7. What is calcinosis circumscripta and how does it present clinically?
Answers · Q & A
Q1.What are the three main categories of soft tissue calcification?
  • Dystrophic
  • Metastatic
  • Calcinosis (cutaneous, subcutaneous, deep connective tissue)
Q2.What are the causes of dystrophic soft tissue calcification?
  • Vascular: phlebolith
  • Infection: TB
  • Tumour: synovial sarcoma, osteosarcoma, chondrosarcoma, synovial chondromatosis, haemangioma
  • Haematoma
  • Calcific tendinitis
Q3.What are the types and causes of metastatic soft tissue calcification?
  • Increased calcium - hyperPTH
  • Increased phosphate - CKD
  • Gout
  • May resemble tumoral calcinosis
Q4.How is calcinosis classified by extent?
  • Focal: hand - calcinosis circumscripta; joint - chondrocalcinosis, tumoral calcinosis
  • Diffuse: calcinosis universalis, myositis ossificans progressiva
Q5.Where can calcinosis be deposited anatomically?
  • Cutaneous
  • Subcutaneous
  • Deep connective tissue
Q6.What are the radiological features of tumoral calcinosis?
  • Amorphous, lobulated
  • Chicken-wire lucencies (thin fibrous septae)
  • Cobblestone appearance
  • Cystic lesions with fluid level = calcium hydroxyapatite precipitation
Q7.What is calcinosis circumscripta and how does it present clinically?
  • Well defined subcutaneous nodules
  • Ulcerating with chalky hydroxyapatite discharge